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AIRCRAFT GENERAL 1. What lights are turned on by the STORM light switch? a. All flight deck lights. b. All lights in the airplane. c. Aisle stand, glare shield, and instrument flood lights, dome lights, and indicator lights. d. Landing lights, navigation lights, strobe lights, and wing lights 2. Which lights are turned to full bright by the STORM light switch? a. All exterior lights b. All panel and flood lights c. Floor lights, all panel lights, and CDU displays d. Dome lights, all flood lights, and illuminated indicator lights 3. What happens when you adjust an individual panel light brightness or display brightness control when the master bright system is on? a. It has no effect. b. The master bright system turns off. c. The brightness of all panel lights and all displays change by a small amount. d. The brightness of the individual panel light or display changes by a small amount. 4. What is the required position of individual panel light or display brightness controls for the master bright system to have full range of control? a. 12 o’clock b. 6 o’clock c. 10 o’clock d. 2 o’clock 5. What position should the UPR DSPL brightness control be selected to for full range of control with the master bright system?
a. 2 o clock b. 6 o clock c. 10 o clock d. 12 o clock
6. When does the FASTEN SEAT BELTS sign automatically illuminate? a. When the landing gear is up b. When the cabin altitude is below 10,000 feet c. When the passenger oxygen system is ON d. When the flaps are up 7. When does the NO SMOKING sign automatically illuminate? a. On the ground b. With the flaps extended c. When the passenger oxygen system is ON d. Both A and B are correct 8. What is the status of the nose gear landing lights when the NOSE LANDING light switch is ON but the nose landing gear is NOT down and locked? a. Illuminated b. Extinguished c. Illuminated if both main landing gear are down and locked AIR SYSTEMS 9. Under normal conditions, what is the source of bleed air to start the second engine? a. Engine b. APU c. Ground carts 10. Which are bleed air sources? a. APU and ground cart b. Trim air c. Demand pump d. Packs 11. What determines the pack outlet temperature? a. The average demand of all zones b. The master cabin temperature control c. The zone requesting the lowest temperature d. The zone requesting the warmest temperature
12. Why should the CABIN TEMP control be set to mid position? a. To set the maximum temperature in any zone b. To all full temperature range adjustment on cabin attendant panel c. To prevent cabin over heat during low altitude flight d. To set the actual temperature in cabin zone A-F 13. What does the MAN position on the FLT DECK TEMP control do? a. It removes power from the trim air system b. It cause the pack to provide air at an average mid temperature range c. It allows the trim air valve to operate manually d. It removes control at the cabin attendant panel 14. What happens if the FLT DECK TEMP control is moved to the “C’’ position? a. The pack temperature decreases b. It opens the flight deck trim air valve c. It closes the trim air valve and lowers the flight deck temperature d. It cancels input to the flight deck temperature controller 15. When is the pack OFF light illuminated amber? a. During engine start b. When there is a pack temperature outlet high temperature condition c. When both control valves have failed d. All of the above 16. What happens when the BULK CARGO TEMPERATURE selector is positioned to high? a. The compartment temperature is automatically kept at approximately 7˚ C b. The compartment temperature is automatically kept at approximately 21˚ C c. The bulk cargo ventilation fan operates continuously d. Both b & c are correct 17. Which system(s) supply trim air to the flight deck? a. Right trim air system b. Left trim air system c. Both right and left trim air systems d. Center trim air system
18. How does the trim air system meet zone temperature requirements? a. It controls pack air temperature b. It heats conditioned air c. It cools conditioned air 19. When does the EICAS message EQUIP COOLING display? a. When one of the two supply fans is inoperative b. In the air when the forward equipment cooling system is inoperative c. On the ground when the forward equipment cooling fan is inoperative d. On the ground when the aft equipment cooling fan is inoperative 20. Which statement(s) are correct about the equipment cooling override mode? a. The mode is selected automatically b. The EICAS message EQUIP COOLING OVRD is displayed c. There is a non-normal procedure for this message d. A, B, C are all correct 21. During climb, what parameter(s) schedule cabin altitude? a. Airplane flight altitude b. A constant pressure differential c. Airplane climb rate and flight plan cruise altitude d. Takeoff and landing field elevation 22. What is the cabin altitude at maximum certified airplane operating altitude? a. 9,000 feet b. 10,000 feet c. 8,000 feet d. 7,500 feet 23. What is the source of supplemental heat for the aft cargo compartment? a. Forward equipment cooling exhaust air b. Left recirculation fan c. An electric heater d. An independent bleed air heating system
24. What is bleed air used for? a. Pressurizing the hydraulic reservoirs b. Asperating the TAT probe c. None of the above d. Both A and B 25. When dose the ground crew call horn sound? a. When the hydraulics are pressurized b. In case of APU fire c. Before starting engines d. When cooling of the forward electronic/electrical equipment is inoperative 26. Why should you minimize flight time at low altitude when the EQUIP COOLING OVRD message is displayed? a. Aft and bulk cargo compartments my overheat b. Pack temperature would cause damage c. Equipment and displays could fail d. Recirculation fans my not cool equipment adequately 27. What actions should you take if EQIUP COOLING OVRD message is displayed? a. Descend to a lower altitude and continue the flight b. Monitor equipment temperature on EICAS c. Turn off FWD and AFT recirculation fans d. Plan to descent for minimum time at low altitude 28. What does PCAK MODE R EICAS message indicate? a. The right pack is inoperative b. The right pack is operating in standby cooling mode c. The standby cooling mode is inoperative d. The airplane is in unfavorable conditions and right pack output temperature is too high 29. What does a visible orange lip indicate on a pressure relief valve? A. The valve is in its normally closed position B. The valve is in its normally open position C. The valve opened during the previous flight because of cabin overpressure D. The status of the valve can not be determined by a visual inspection
30. What action is required if a visible orange lip on a pressure relief valve is displayed? a. Action not required the valve is in its normally closed position b. Advise maintenance of the open valve c. Position the landing altitude switch to AUTO d. Set cabin altitude to less than 800 feet 31. What is the function of the negative pressure relief valve? a. They prevent negative pressure differentials b. They minimize cabin over pressure conditions c. They improve smoke removal ventilation d. The regulate cabin pressure during climb 32. What is the normal position of the forward out flow valve after landing? a. Full open b. Full closed c. In transit d. 30 degrees open 33. What is the normal position of the forward out flow valve after landing? a. Full closed b. In transit c. 30 degrees open d. Full open 34. During preflight, what position should the APU BLEED AIR switch be? a. OFF b. AUTO c. ON d. OUT 35. During preflight, what position should the L ENG and R ENG BLEED AIR switches be in? a. OUT b. OFF c. AUTO d. ON
36. After engine start, what is the correct position for the L ENG and R ENG BLEED AIR switches? a. OUT b. ON c. AUTO d. OFF 37. During normal bleed air operation what position should the L, C, R ISLN BLEED AIR switches be in? a. L ISLN AUTO, R ISLN AUTO, C ISLN OFF b. OFF c. AUTO d. ON 38. Where is the target temperature for the air conditioning zones displayed? a. On the lower EICAS display when pressurization is selected to MAN b. On the AIR synoptic c. On the upper EICAS display when pressurization is selected to MAN d. On the HYD synoptic 39. In the standby cooling mode, what will the pack automatically do if the airplane is not in an area of sufficient cooling? a. Decrease airflow to half rate b. Shut off the pack c. Fail the pack standby cooling controller d. Increase airflow through the pack 40. What does a PACK MODE R EICAS message indicate? a. The pack is operating in the standby cooling mode b. The pack will NOT operate in the standby cooling mode c. The standby cooling mode has failed d. The airplane is in unfavorable conditions and the pack output temperature is too high
41. What landing altitude indications are displayed on the EICAS pressurization system indications when the airplane has traveled more than 400 miles or has passed the halfway point?
a. The departure airport altitude to the nearest 100 feet
b. The destination airport altitude to the nearest 100 feet c. The destination airport altitude to the nearest 500 feet d. The alternate airport altitude to the nearest 50 feet
42. What landing altitude indications are displayed on the EICAS pressurization system indications when the airplane has traveled less than 400 miles or has passed the halfway point?
a. The departure airport altitude to the nearest 100 feet
b. The destination airport altitude to the nearest 100 feet c. The destination airport altitude to the nearest 500 feet d. The alternate airport altitude to the nearest 50 feet 43. During preflight, what should the position of the FWD and AFT OUT FLOW VALVE switches and LDG ALT selector be in? a. OUT FLOW VALVE switch in AUTO and LDG ALT selector pulled out b. OUT FLOW VALVE switch in OFF and LDG ALT selector pushed in c. OUT FLOW VALVE switch in AUTO and LDG ALT selector pushed in d. OUT FLOW VALVE switch in MAN and LDG ALT selector pushed in 44. What action is required during preflight if the LANDING ALTITUDE EICAS message is displayed with the FWD and AFT OUT FLOW VALVE switch in AUTO?
a. Push the LDG ALT selector IN
b. Pull the LDG ALT selector OUT
c. Select the FWD and AFT OUT FLOW VALVE switches to MAN
d. Both A and C are correct 45. Why does the flight deck receive air from the left pack at a higher pressure than the passenger cabin?
a. The pilots demand itb. To prevent smoke from entering the flight deck c. To defog the forward windows
d. To cool the equipment in the aisle stand
46. What system provides the heat for the forward cargo compartment? a. Aft cargo heat system b. Bleed air from the engines c. The trim air system d. Exhaust from the equipment cooling system 47. Why does the pressurization system schedule the cabin altitude slightly below airport field elevation foe landing? a. For structural reasons b. So the airplane will land somewhat depressurized c. So the airplane will land somewhat pressurized d. Both A and C are correct ANTI-ICE, RAIN 48. When can engine anti-ice be operated manually? a. Only on the ground b. Only in the air c. On the ground or in the air d. Only when TAT in above 10˚C 49. What do the EAI symbols on the EICAS indicate? a. Engine anti-ice is armed b. Engine anti-ice is operating c. Engine anti-ice has failed d. Engine anti-ice should be turned off 50. What is the position of the engine anti-ice valve when the ENGINE ANTI-ICE selector is in AUTO and EAI is displayed? a. Open b. Closed c. Inoperative d. Cannot be determined 51. When can wing anti-ice be operated? a. Only on the ground b. On the ground or in the air c. Only in flight d. Only when TAT is above 10˚C
52. When will wing anti-ice operate automatically? a. Only on the ground b. Only in flight c. Both on the ground and in flight d. Only when TAT is above 10˚ 53. Which windows are heated for both anti-ice and anti-fog protection? a. Both pilot’s forward windows b. Left pilot’s forward windows and right pilot’s side windows c. All windows d. Left pilot’s forward and side windows, and right pilot’s forward and side windows 54. Which windows are provided with backup anti-fog heat? a. All windows b. Both pilot’s forward windows c. Left pilot’s forward window and right pilot’s side window d. Left pilot’s forward and side window, and right pilot’s forward and side window 55. Why are the wipers never operated on a dry windshield? a. The wiper blades will be ruined b. The wiper motor might burn out c. The hydrophobic coating may be scratched d. The bugs will be smeared all over the window 56. Why are the WIPER selectors set to OFF during preflight? a. To avoid wiper operation on dry windshields b. To avoid damage to the wiper blades c. To all the hydrophobic coating to warm up d. To avoid possible injury to maintenance 57. What does the WINDOW HEAT R FWD EICAS message mean? a. The WINDOW HEAT R FWD switch is off b. The window is still in the warm up cycle c. An overheat or fault has occurred d. Either A or C is correct
58. What does the WINDOW HEAT EICAS message mean? a. The backup window heat system in inoperative b. The windows are using backup power c. Two or more window heat faults have occurred d. A single overheat or fault has occurred 59. When will the ANTI-ICE ON EICAS message be displayed? a. TAT above 10˚ C, all ANTI-ICE selectors OFF and NO ice is detected b. TAT below 10˚ C, all ANTI-ICE selectors ON and ice is detected c. TAT above 10˚ C, any ANTI-ICE selector ON and NO ice is detected d. TAT below 10˚ C, any ANTI-ICE selector OFF and NO ice detected 60. What position on the ANTI-ICE selector will remove the ANTI-ICE ON EICAS message? a. AUTO b. ON c. OFF d. Both A and C are correct 61. What position should the ENGINE ANTI-ICE selectors be in for taxing in icing conditions? a. AUTO b. ON c. OFF d. Both A and B are correct 62. What position should the WING ANTI-ICE selectors be in for taxing in icing conditions? a. AUTO b. ON c. OFF d. Both A and B are correct 63. What action should you take if the ICE DETECTORS EICAS message displays? a. Turn all ANTI-ICE selectors ON the back to AUTO to rest the system b. Turn all ANTI-ICE selectors OFF for the reminder of the flight and avoid icing conditions c. Turn all ANTI-ICE selectors ON when icing conditions are encountered d. Turn all ANTI-ICE selectors ON for the reminder of the flight
64. What occurs when engine anti-ice is operating? a. Probe heat switches from reduced to full power b. Approach idle is selected c. The ENGINE ANTI-ICE ON memo message displays d. The backup window heat system operates AUTOMATIC FLIGHT 65. Is your bank angle limited to 20 degrees when LNAV is engaged and the BANK LIMIT selector is set to the 20 degree position? a. Yes b. NO 66. Is your bank angle limited to 15 degrees when TRK SEL mode is engaged and the BANK LIMIT selector is set to the 15 degrees position? a. Yes b. No 67. When is TOGA armed? Select all that are true. a. When flaps are not up b. When the landing gear is down c. When below 1500 feet RA d. When G/S is armed 68. What does the AUTOPILOT EICAS message mean when an amber line is drawn through the pitch mode? a. The engaged autopilot has failed b. The pitch mode has failed and the autopilot is continuing to operate c. The pitch mode has failed and the autopilot has disconnected 69. What does the AUTOPILOT EICAS message mean when an amber line is drawn through the pitch mode? a. The autopilot is operating in an degraded mode b. The pitch mode has failed c. The autopilot ahs entered envelope protection d. All of the above
70. What does the NO LAND 3 EICAS message mean when the FLARE and ROLLOUT armed are displayed? a. The autopilot disconnect switch has been pushed b. The autopilot is inoperative. Manual landing is required c. The auto-land system does not have redundancy for triple channel auto-land d. NO LAND 3 means you are more than 3 miles from land 71. Which MCP actions are accomplished during preflight? a. Turn OFF left and right flight directors. Set initial heading b. Arm left and right auto-throttle. Set initial heading. Set initial altitude c. Disarm right auto-throttle. Set initial hading. Set initial altitude d. Engage autopilot. Arm LOC and APP. Set initial altitude 72. What position should the A/P DISENGAGE bar be in during the MCP preflight? a. Up to the engaged position b. Down to the disengaged position c. Down to the engaged position d. None of the above 73. What is the sequence of steps to use FLCH to climb to FL250 at 280kts? a. Set 280kts in the IAS/MACH window, push FLCH switch, then set 250 in the altitude window b. Set 280 in the altitude window, push FLCH switch, then set 250kts in the IAS/MACH window c. Push FLCH switch, set FL250 in the altitude window, then set 280kts in the IAS/MACH window d. Set FL250 in the altitude window, push FLCH switch then set 280kts in the IAS/MACH window 74. What is the sequence of steps to use FLCH to descend to 5000 feet at 240kts? a. Set 240kts in the IAS/MACH window, push FLCH switch, then set 5000 feet in the altitude window b. Set 280 feet in the altitude window, push FLCH switch, then set 500kts in the IAS/MACH window c. Push FLCH switch set 5000 feet in the altitude window, then set 240kts in the IAS/MACH window d. Set 5000 feet in the altitude window, push FLCH switch, then set 240kts in the ISA/MACH window
75. What is the sequence of steps to change airspeed with VNAV engaged using speed intervention? a. Change the IAS/MACH window to the new airspeed, the push the IAS/MACH selector b. Push the IAS/MACH selector, then change the IAS/MACH window to the new airspeed c. Change the IAS/MACH window to the new airspeed, the push FLCH d. Push FLCH then change the IAS/MACH window to the airspeed 76. What is the sequence of steps to reduce airspeed with VNAV engaged, using speed intervention? a. Change the IAS/MACH window to the lower airspeed, then push the IAS/MACH selector b. Change the IAS/MACH window to the lower airspeed the push FLCH c. Push the IAS/MACH selector, then change the IAS/MACH window to the lower airspeed d. Push FLCH, then change the IAS/MACH window to the lower airspeed 77. With TRK SEL engaged, what is the COORECT sequence of steps to turn to heading 150 degrees using HDG SEL mode? a. Push the HDG/TRK reference switch, verify HDG SEL on the FMA, then rotate HDG/TRK selector to the right to set 150 in the HDG/TRK window b. Push the IAS/MACH selector, verify HDG SEL on the FMA, then rotate the HDG/TRK selector to the right to set 150 in the HDG/TRK window c. Push the IAS/MACH selector, verify TRK SEL on the FMA, then rotate in the HDG/TRK reference to the left to set 150 in the HDG/TRK window d. Push the LNAV reference switch, verify LNAV on the FMA, then rotate the HDG/TRK selector to the right to set 150 in the HDG/TRK window 78. With HDG SEL engaged, what is the CORRECT sequence of steps to turn right to track 150 degrees using the TRK SEL mode? a. Push the HDG/TRK selector, verify TRK SEL on the FMA, then rotate the HDG/TRK selector to the right to set 150 in the HDG/TRK window b. Push the IAS/MACH selector verify TRK SEL on the FMA, then rotate the HDG/TRK selector to the right to set 150 in the HDG/TRK window c. Push the IAS/MACH selector, verify HDG SEL on the FMA, the rotate the HDG/TRK reference switch to the left to set 150 in the HDG/TRK window d. Push the LNAV reference switch, verify LNAV on the FMA, then rotate the HDG/TRK selector to the right to set 150 in the HDG/TRK window
79. Which switch engages the auto throttle with the A/T ARM switch in ARM? a. CLB/CON switch b. A/T engage switch c. LNAV switch
d. APP switch 80. When V/S shows in the V/S- FPA window. What are the correct steps to make a 2.6 degree FPA descent?
a. Push V/S-FPA reference switch, set new altitude, push VS/FPA switch, set2.6 degree flight path angle
b. Push VS/FPA switch , set 2.6 degree flight path angle, set new altitude c. Set new altitude, push VS/FPA switch, set 2.6 degree flight path angle d. Push VS/FPS switch only 81. What action resets the autopilot system and warning system, and cancels the AUTOPILOT DISC message?
a. Pushing the autopilot disconnect switch a second time?
b. Pushing the CANCEL/RECALL switch a second time?c. Pushing the master warning switch when the light is illuminated d. Pushing the CANCEL switch below the master warning switch 82. What switch rests the auto-throttle system and cancels the AUTOTHROTTLE DISC message?
a. Autopilot disconnect switchb. Auto-throttle disconnect switch c. Master caution switch
d. All of the above 83. Which A/T ARM switch configuration causes the AUTOTHTROTTLE R message to display?
a. Left switch OFF, right switch ON b. Left switch ON, right switch OFF c. Left switch ON, right switch ON
d. Left switch OFF, right switch OFF
84. What will a second push of the TO/GA switch do during the takeoff roll above 80kts, with LNAV and VNAV armed?
a. Engages LNAV, and VNAV
b. Disarms LNAV, and engages VNAV c. Engages LNAV, and disarms VNAV d. Disarms LNAV and VNAV 85. What will the autopilot do if you override the control column?
a. Engage in HDG HOLD and V/S b. Engage in TRK HOLD and FPA c. Disengage
d. Cause both roll and pitch modes to fail 86. With the autopilot engaged, and LNAV engaged, what will happen if the last active waypoint is passed?
a. LNAV will disengageb. The autopilot will turn the airplane toward the destination airport c. LNAV will maintain current heading
d. HDG HOLD will engage 87. What happens to bank angle protection if the A/P DISENGAGE bar is selected down?
a. Bank angel protection is disengagedb. Bank angel protection remains engaged c. Bank angel protection is reduced by half
d. Bank angel protection becomes proportional to the rate of turn 88. Above what altitude can you disengage the approach mode by pushing the APP switch a second time? a. 500 feet RA b. 1000 feet RA c. 1500 feet RA d. 2500 feet RA
COMMUNICATION 89. What is necessary to converse with the mechanic servicing the engine at the engine nacelle? a. Position the SERV INTPH switch to ON b. Position the OBS AUDIO selector to CAPT c. Use the CDU and line select SERVICE INTERPHONE d. You cannot speak with any of the ground crew except at the nose wheel well 90. Which of these statements could be true if the offside tuning light is illuminated on the left radio tuning panel? a. The left tuning panel is inoperative b. The selected frequency is not in the normal frequency range c. The left radio tuning panel is tuning a radio normally tuned by one of the other tuning panels d. The frequency is being transferred from the STANBY to the ACTIVE window 91. What does the illumination of the offside tuning light mean? a. The selected VHF radio is inoperative b. You have a call from company c. One of the other radio tuning panels is tuning a radio normally tuned by this radio panel d. The microphone is keyed and transmitting on the selected frequency 92. What is indicated by a flight deck printer light? a. The flight deck printer has failed b. The flight deck printer is turned off c. The flight deck printer door is open or the printer paper is jammed d. The flight deck printer paper is low 93. What does the • SELCALL communication EICAS alert message indicate? a. The selective calling system has failed b. A VHF or HF selective call has been received and is waiting to be answered c. A cabin attendant is calling the flight deck d. An uplink has been received
94. What does the • COMM communication EICAS alert message indicate when accompanied by a high-low chime? a. A medium priority uplink has been received and may be reviewed on the communication display b. A VHF or HF selective call has been received and is waiting to be answered c. A low priority uplink has been received and may be reviewed on the communication display d. ACARS has failed 95. A high low chime sounds and a • COMM communication alert message appears on EICAS. What action should you take? a. Push the COMM switch on the display select panel and view the uplink message in the CDU scratch pad b. Push the FMC COMM function key on the CDU and view the uplink message c. Push the COMM switch on the display select panel and view the uplink message on the MFD d. Push the transmitter select switch with the illuminated CALL light and respond to the call 96. What does an illuminated flight inter phone CALL light on the audio control panel indicate? a. Another airplane is calling b. A ground crew technician is calling the flight deck c. Someone is calling the flight deck on VHF radio d. The FLT transmitter select switch is stuck in the ON position 97. What happens when you push the transmitter select switch twice in one second? a. Nothing. The second push cancels the selection b. A priority call is placed to a pre-selected cabin station c. A conference call is initiated with all cabin stations d. A pre-recorded message is sent to a pre-selected cabin station 98. Which statement about the VHF radios is true? a. Only VHF C can be configured for data communications b. VHF C and VHF R can be operated in the DATA mode at the same time c. VHF L is configured for voice communication only d. The DATA mode can only be selected or deselected on the MFD COMM display
99. Which statement about the radio tuning panel is correct? a. Any VHF radio can be controlled by any radio tuning panel b. HF L can only be tuned by the left radio tuning panel c. The offside tuning light will only appear on the active ratio tuning panel d. The center ratio tuning panel can only be used to tune an HF radio if either the left or right panel fails 100. How can the flight crew make a PA announcement to all areas of the cabin? a. Push the PA transmitter select switch on the audio control panel and key any MIC switch b. Using the flight deck hand set, enter the appropriate dial code from the handset directory, then push the hand set PA push to talk switch c. Push the CAB transmitter select switch on the audio control panel, then enter the appropriate dial code using the CDU keypad, then key any MIC switch d. All of the above 101. What can the first officer do to regain audio control if his audio control panel fails? a. Position the OBS AUDIO selector to CAPT, then use the captain’s audio control panel b. Position the OBS AUDIO selector to F/O for at least 1 second, then back to NORM, and use the First Officer’s audio control panel c. Position the OBS AUDIO selector to F/O, then use the Observer’s audio control panel d. Position the OBS AUDIO selector to F/O, then use the First Officer’s audio control panel 102. Which of the following can be done using the CDU cabin interphone pages? a. Call any cabin handset b. Alert the ground crew that you want to speak to them c. Make a PA announcement to a specific cabin area d. All of the above 103. What is true about ATC data link? a. Logon occurs automatically with FMC CDU route activation b. The crew must manually logon to a participating ATC facility c. An ATC facility must initiate the logon d. Logon occurs automatically anytime AC power is established on the airplane
104. Which of the following data values does NOT provide crew feedback, by turning green, when you comply with an ATC uplink message? a. MCP heading b. VOR frequency c. VHF frequency d. Barometric setting 105. How can the crew cancel a displayed company ATC uplink message? a. Push the CANC switch on the glare shield b. Select the CANCEL command key on the MFD COMM page c. Push the CANC/RCL switch on the display select panel d. Either A or B 106. Which of the following is NOT and example of an ATC REQUESTED REPORT that can be armed for automatic downlink to ATC? a. LEVEL FL330 b. LEAVING FL330 c. MAINTAINING FL330 d. PASSING SEA ELECTRICAL 107. You have a cold airplane (no power connected). Which items will be powered if you push the BATTERY switch ON? a. The APU controller and the DC fuel pump will be powered b. Only the main battery c. The hot battery bus will be powered 108. What automatic switching will occur if you start the APU with external power on the BUS TIE system? a. The APU connects to the BUS TIE switches but does not power either main bus b. The APU connects to the BUS TIE and replaces secondary external power on the left main bus c. The APU connects to the BUS TIE and replaces primary external power
109. How are the buses powered if the right engine is started with the APU powering the left bus system and external power powering the right bus system? a. External power continues to supply the right main bus b. The right engine generator automatically powers the right main bus c. The right engine generator automatically powers both main buses 110. What powers the left main bus if the left engine is shut down, the right engine is running and the APU is not running? a. Secondary external power supplies the right main bus b. The APU generator power the left main bus c. The right engine generator powers the left main bus 111. Which items below are de-powered if you position the BATTERY switch to OFF during power down? a. The APU battery and the hot battery bus b. The engine fire extinguisher bottles and APU fire extinguisher bottle c. The standby bus, Captain’s display, and left AIMS 112. How can you power the ground handling bus before shutdown if no external power is available? a. Select the ground handling bus to ON b. The bus is powered as long as the right main bus is powered c. Start the APU 113. Which bus operates only on the ground? a. The ground service bus b. The ground handling bus c. The left main AC bus d. The right transfer bus 114. What is the primary source of DC power during normal flight? a. APU battery b. Main battery c. Transformer rectifier units d. DC generators
115. What provides DC power on this airplane? a. DC generators b. Standby inverters c. Transfer busses d. Transformer rectifier units 116. When does the right transfer bus isolate from the right main bus? a. Never b. During decent c. When the system configures for auto-land d. When main AC busses are powered 117. What is the electrical configuration during auto-land? a. There is no change from normal b. The left transfer bus isolates from the right main bus c. The right transfer bus isolates from the right main bus d. The left transfer bus isolates from the right transfer bus 118. What is the primary source for “fly by wire”? a. Battery b. Main AC busses c. Permanent magnet generators d. APU 119. What is the secondary source of power for “fly by wire” if one or more PMG are un- powered? a. Hot battery bus b. Left transfer bus c. DC busses d. Main AC bus 120. What is the primary source of standby power if all normal AC and DC power sources fail? a. APU b. Main battery c. Backup generators d. RAT generator
121. What is the source of standby electrical power if the RAT sheds electrical power because of low hydraulic pressure?
a. APUb. Backup generators c. Main battery
d. DC busses 122. Which condition(s) cause the ELEC GEN DRIVE L EICAS message to display? a. Generator drive oil temperature is high b. Generator drive oil pressure is low
c. GENERATOR CONTROL switch selected OFF
d. Either A or B is correct 123. What is the primary source of power for the transfer busses?
a. Ram air turbine
b. Backup generators c. Engine generators d. Main DC busses 124. What is the correct electrical panel configuration for normal flight?
a. BUS TIE switch in ISLN, BATTERY switch ON, GENERATOR CONTROLswitches ON b. BUS TIE switch in AUTO, BATTERY switch OFF, GENERATOR CONTROL switches ON c. BUS TIE switch in AUTO, BATTERY switch ON, GENERATOR CONTROL switches ON d. BUS TIE switch in AUTO, BATTERY switch ON, GENERATOR CONTROL switches OFF 125. What does the green EXTERNAL POWER AVAIL light indicate?
a. External power is disconnected from the airplane
b. External power is connected to all the airplane’s electrical bussesc. Electrical power is available to the electrical busses but may not be correct d. External power is connected to the airplane, correct and ready to power the electrical busses
EMERGENCY EQUIPMENT 126. How many quick donning oxygen masks are installed on the flight deck? a. One for each pilot b. One for each observer c. One for each pilot, one for each observer d. One for each pilot and only one observer 127. What is the status of the crew oxygen system if the oxygen status display is blank? a. Crew oxygen pressure is with is acceptable limits b. Crew oxygen system has been turned off c. Crew oxygen pressure signal is not present or invalid d. Crew oxygen pressure is low 128. What does the CREW OXYGEN LOW EICAS message indicate? a. Crew oxygen system pressure is low b. Crew oxygen system has been turned off c. Crew oxygen system has failed d. Crew oxygen system quantity is low 129. What does the PASS OXYGEN ON EICAS message indicate? a. Passenger oxygen system has been manually or automatically activated b. Passenger oxygen system has been manually or automatically deactivated c. Passenger oxygen system has been manually deactivated d. Passenger oxygen system has been automatically activated 130. What automatically activates the airplane emergency lighting system? a. Selecting the EMER LIGHTS switch on the overhead panel to the OFF position b. Loss of left and right main DC electrical power c. Loss of left and right backup power d. Loss of APU generator 131. What manually activates the airplane emergency lighting system? a. Closing the EMER LIGHT switch guard b. Selecting the APU GEN switch to the ON position c. Turning on the left and right backup generators d. Selecting the EMER LIGHT switch on the overhead panel to ON
132. If all electrical power is available, what causes the EMER LIGHT EICAS advisory message to be displayed? a. The emergency lighting system has failed b. The EMER LIGHT switch on the overhead panel is not in the ARM position c. The EMER LIGHT switch on the overhead panel is in the ARM position d. The APU generator is turned off 133. If all electrical power is available, what causes the EMER LIGHT EICAS advisory message to be displayed? a. The emergency lighting system has failed b. The EMER LIGHT switch on the overhead panel is in the ARM position c. The EMER LIGHT switch on the overhead panel is in the ARM position and the emergency lights have been turned on by a flight attendant d. The APU generator is turned off 134. Can the flight deck side window be operated in flight? a. Yes, but only at airspeeds below 200kts b. Yes, but only at airspeeds below Vref + 80kts c. Yes, but only if the airplane is un-pressurized and airspeed is below Vref +80kts d. No, the flight deck side windows can not be operated in flight 135. Under what condition may the flight deck side windows be operated in flight? a. The side windows man not be operated in flight b. The side windows may be operated in flight if the airplane is un-pressurized and airspeed is below Vref + 80kts c. The side windows may be operated in flight only if the airplane in un- pressurized d. The side windows maybe operated in flight only at airspeeds below 200kts 136. What indicates a properly closed and locked side window? a. A WINDOW NOT CLOSED placard in view b. A WINDOW NOT CLOSED placard is hidden from view and lock lever in full aft position c. A WINDOW NOT CLOSED placard is hidden from view and lock lever in full forward position d. A WINDOW NOT CLOSED placard in view and lock lever in full forward position
137. What would indicate that a flight deck side window is NOT properly locked? a. WINDOW NOT CLOSED placard in view and the lock lever is fully forward and in the locked position b. Audible caution tone is heard c. Side window hand crank is not in the locked position d. WINDOW NOT CLOSED placard is visible or the lock lever is not fully forward and in the locked position 138. What hazards are associated with the use of the portable fire extinguisher in a confined area? a. Halon is not hazardous in any area b. Halon causes skin blisters c. Halon is toxic in confined areas d. Halon depletes oxygen and must be used while wearing protective breathing equipment 139. What precaution must be exercised when using a Halon fire extinguisher? a. Always wear protective breathing equipment b. Always wear smoke goggles c. Always open the flight deck side windows d. Always wear hear resistant gloves 140. What does the WINDOW FLT DECK R EICAS advisory message indicate? a. Operation of the flight deck right side window is inhibited b. The left side window is NOT closed or is unlocked c. The right side window heat is inoperative d. The right side window is NOT closed or is unlocked 141. What does the WINDOWS EICAS advisory message indicate? a. The left and right side windows are open or unlocked b. The left side windows is open or unlocked c. The right side windows is open or unlocked d. Window heat is inoperative
142. What does the EICAS message CONFIG DOORS indicate? a. At least two passenger ENTRY door flight locks are no in the commanded position and both engines are at takeoff thrust b. The mode select lever of all passenger ENTRY doors is in the manual position and both engines are at takeoff thrust c. A passenger ENTRY door, FWD CARGO door or AFT CARGO door is not closed, latched and locked, ant the engines are at takeoff thrust d. At least 2 doors are not closed, latched and locked, and both engines are at takeoff thrust 143. What does the EICAS message CONFIG DOORS indicate? a. Both engines are at takeoff thrust and a passenger ENTRY door, FWD CARGO door or AFT CARGO door, is not closed latched and locked b. Both engines are at takeoff thrust and the mode select levers of at least 2 passenger entry doors are in the manual position c. Both engines are at takeoff thrust and at least 2 passenger entry doors are in the manual position d. Both engines are at takeoff thrust and the latching mechanism of the FWD CARGO door has malfunctioned 144. What action is required if the DOORS FWD CARGO message displays in flight? a. No action is required b. No action is required if pressurization is normal c. Cabin altitude should be increased d. The airplane must be depressurized to minimize the risk of door separation 145. What action is required if the DOORS FWD CARGO message displays in flight? a. Cabin altitude should be increased b. The airplane must be depressurized to minimize the risk of door separation c. No action is required if pressurization is normal d. No action is required
ENGINES, APU 146. What does the APU SHUTDOWN EICAS message mean? a. The APU is out of fuel b. The APU is in the cool down mode c. The APU has automatically shut down d. The APU controller has shut down the packs 147. What does the APU LIMIT EICAS message mean? a. The APU is out of fuel b. An APU limit has been exceeded c. The APU has automatically shut down d. The APU pneumatic output is limited 148. What thrust reference mode provides maximum rated takeoff thrust? a. TO 1 b. D-TO 1 c. TO d. D-TO 149. What thrust reference mode provides an assumed temperature de-rated takeoff thrust? a. TO 1 b. D-TO 1 c. TO d. TO 2 150. During climb with normal engine EEC modes configured, you manually position the thrust levers to the full forward position. What will happen? a. The engines will exceed the maximum thrust limit b. The engines will produce maximum rated climb thrust c. The engines will produce maximum rated thrust d. The EEC alternated mode will automatically engage 151. During cruise with normal engine EEC mode configured, you manually position the thrust levers to the full forward position. What will happen? a. The engines will exceed the maximum thrust limit b. The engines will produce maximum rated cruise thrust c. The engines will produce maximum rated thrust d. The EEC alternated mode will automatically engage
152. Which statement is true concerning the EEC alternate mode? a. If a fault occurs in the normal mode, control is automatically transferred to the soft alternate mode b. In the hard alternate mode, the EEC uses N2 as the controlling parameter c. Engine thrust limit protection is provided in both the normal and hard alternate mode d. Over speed protection is not available in the hard alternate mode 153. With the EEC manually selected to the alternate mode, which statement is true? a. The auto-throttle automatically disengages b. Positioning the thrust levers to the full forward position will cause an engine limit to be exceeded c. Both engine EEC’s are now in the soft alternate mode d. The EEC schedules N2 as a function of thrust lever position 154. What does the ENG OIL PRESS R EICAS message mean? a. Engine oil pressure is low b. Engine oil pressure is high c. Engine oil temperature is low d. Engine oil temperature is high 155. What does the ENG OIL TEMP L EICAS message mean? a. Engine oil pressure is low b. Engine oil pressure is high c. Engine oil temperature is low d. Engine oil temperature is high 156. What does the ENG FUEL CALCE L EICAS message mean? a. The engine fuel valve on the left engine is closed b. The spar or engine fuel valve on the left engine has not reached its commanded position c. Both the spar and the engine fuel valve on the left engine are commanded to the same position d. The fuel/oil heat exchanger valve is not functioning 157. With auto-start ON, when do you move the FUEL CONTROL switch to RUN? a. After START has been selected on the START/IGNITION selector b. After reaching maximum motoring speed c. After the engine stabilizes at idle d. After 18% N2 has been reached
159. When does automatic continuous ignition activate? a. When flaps are out of the up position or engine anti-ice is on b. When the landing gear is down c. When thunderstorms are detected on the weather radar d. When the thrust levers reach idle or the landing gear is down 160. What powers the left thrust reverser? a. Left hydraulic system b. Center hydraulic system c. Left engine bleed air d. Right engine bleed air 161. What powers the right thrust reverser? a. Left engine bleed air b. Right engine bleed air c. Center hydraulic system d. Right hydraulic system 162. What does ENG REV LIMITED R EICAS message mean? a. The right engine reverser will provide maximum reverse thrust for a limited time b. The right engine reverser will not deploy or will be limited to idle c. The right engine reverser thrust indication in not valid d. The right engine reverse thrust is limited to rejected takeoffs only 163. What does ENG REV LIMITED L EICAS message mean? a. The left reverser is limited to 1 hydraulic source b. Engine reverse thrust is limited to the left engine c. The right engine reverser will not deploy or will be limited to idle d. The left engine reverse will be limited to ground operation only 164. Where is engine oil quantity displayed? a. The status display b. The primary engine display c. The secondary engine display d. There is no flight deck display for engine oil quantity
165. When dose the EEC select approach idle? a. When the flaps are out of the up position b. When the flaps are commanded to 25 or grater c. When the engine bleed air valve is open d. When wing anti-ice is ON 166. What malfunction, during ground start, will cause the auto start system to abort the start? a. Low oil pressure b. High oil temperature c. Broken fan blade d. Hot start 167. What is auto relight? a. Auto relight provides flame out protection by activating the auto start system b. Auto relight provides flame out protection by activating both igniters c. Auto relight opens the start valve automatically if the engine fails to start d. Auto relight provides hung start protection by activating the igniter 168. If the APU is in the attended mode, what fault causes an immediate automatic shutdown? a. APU controller failure b. High EGT c. Low oil pressure d. High oil temperature FIRE PROTECTION 169. During preflight, you notice the BOTTLE DISCH APU message displayed on EICAS, what does this mean? a. This is a normal indication prior to APU start b. The APU fire bottle has discharged c. The APU fire bottle squibs are inoperative
170. During preflight, you notice the BOTTLE 1 DISCHARGE ENG message displayed on EICAS, What does this mean? a. Ground maintenance is servicing ground bottle 1 b. The fire bottle squibs are inoperative c. This is a normal indication prior to APU start d. Fire bottle 1 has discharged 171. During cruise you notice the ENG OVER HEAT R message displayed on EICAS. What has occurred? a. An overheat condition exists in the right engine b. A fire condition exists in the right engine c. Overheat detection in the right engine has failed d. A pending overheat condition exists in the right engine 172. What happens when an APU fire is detected on the ground and the engines are running? a. The APU shuts down automatically and the fire bottle discharges automatically b. The APU shuts down automatically but the fire bottle must be discharged manually c. The APU does NOT shut down automatically but the fire bottle discharges automatically d. The APU does NOT shut down automatically and the fire bottle must be discharged manually 173. What happens when an APU fire is detected on the ground and the engines are shutdown? a. The APU shuts down automatically and the fire bottle discharges automatically b. The APU shuts down automatically but the fire bottle must be discharged manually c. The APU does NOT shut down automatically but the fire bottle discharges automatically d. The APU does NOT shut down automatically and the fire bottle must be discharged manually 174. What action should be taken if the fire switch remains locked after a fire is detected? a. Wait until the fire light extinguishes b. Pull the fire switch to override the lock c. Push the fire override switch, then pull the fire switch d. Rotate the fire switch
175. What does the DET FIRE ENG R EICAS message indicate? a. Fire detection for this engine is no longer available b. The fire detection for this engine has automatically reconfigured to single loop operation c. The right engine fire bottle squibs are inoperative d. A fire has been detected in the right engine 176. What does the DET FIRE APU EICAS message indicate? a. The APU fire detection system has automatically reconfigured to single loop operation b. APU fire detection is no longer available c. The APU fire bottle squibs are inoperative d. A fire has been detected in the APU 177. After the FWD CARGO FIRE ARM switch has been armed, what happens when the CARGO FIRE DISCH switch is pushed? a. Two rapid dump bottles discharge into the forward cargo compartment b. All 5 fire bottles arm and airflow around the cargo compartment is reduced c. All 5 fire bottles discharge into the forward cargo compartment d. One of the metered bottles discharges into the forward cargo compartment 178. After a forward cargo fire has been extinguished, what happens when the AFT CARGO FIRE ARM switch is now pushed? a. The arming function for the AFT CARGO FIRE ARM switch activate and the metered bottles discharge into the aft compartment b. The arming function for the AFT CARGO FIRE ARM switch do not activate c. The arming function for the AFT CARGO FIRE ARM switch activate, but discharge into the aft compartment does not occurred 179. What statement is true concerning a wheel well fire? a. Two fire bottles protect the wheel well from fires b. Fire detection loops alert the crew to excessive brake temperatures c. Fires are detected by two smoke detection units in the wheel well d. There is no built in fire detection system in the wheel well
180. Which statement is true concerning a lavatory fire? a. An automatic sprinkler system activates if a fire is detected b. An aural warning activates and a light illuminates out side the lavatory if smoke is detected c. There is no built in fire extinguishing system for the lavatories d. The lavatory fire extinguishing system is activated by a discharge switch on the overhead panel 181. What does the DET CARGO FIRE AFT EICAS message indicate? a. A fire has been detected in the aft cargo compartment b. There is a detection zone fault in the smoke detector for the aft cargo compartment c. The aft cargo fire heat sensor is inoperative d. Fire detection for the aft cargo compartment is not available 182. What does the DET FIRE CARGO FWD EICAS message indicate? a. A fire has been detected in the forward cargo compartment b. There is a detection zone fault in the smoke detector for the forward cargo compartment c. Fire detection for the forward cargo compartment is not available d. The forward cargo fire heat sensor is inoperative FLIGTH CONTORLS 183. Which of the following is true when the flight control system is operating in secondary mode? a. Envelope protection features are available b. Actuator control electronics (ACE) are NOT available c. The primary flight computers (PFC) are NOT available d. Autopilot and envelope protection are not available 184. Which of the following is true when the flight control is operating in secondary mode? a. Envelope protection features are NOT available b. Actuator control electronics (ACE) are NOT available c. The primary flight computers (PFC) are NOT available d. The autopilot is available
185. Which of these flight controls drop when the trailing edge flaps extend? a. Flaperons b. Slats only c. Krueger flaps and slats d. Flaperons and slats 186. Which of these flight control surfaces aid in roll control? a. Ailerons, Flaperons and spoilers b. Slats and spoilers only c. Krueger flaps, slats and spoilers d. Flaperons and slats 187. Which of these flight controls surfaces assist in roll control? a. Slats b. Slats and spoilers c. Ailerons and Flaperons d. Flaperons and slats 188. In direct mode, which of the following components of the primary flight control systems are not operating? a. Actuator control electronics (ACE) b. Primary flight control computers (PFC) c. Electro hydraulic servos d. All components are operating 189. In the direct mode, which of the following components of fly-by-wire are NOT operating? a. Primary flight computers (PFC) b. Actuator control electronics (ACE) c. Power control units (PCU) d. Position feedback transducers 190. What does stall warning consist of? a. Stick shaker followed by stall warning b. Stick shaker but no stall warning c. EICAS message “STALL” d. Stall warning horn
191. Which of the following are not stall protection features? a. The auto throttle advances to maintain minimum speed b. The auto throttle disconnects c. In landing configuration, leading edge slats move to gapped position d. Stick shaker activates 192. What is false about stabilizer trim? a. The green band on the stabilizer position shows the stabilizer trim range for take off b. You can use the pitch trim switches on the yoke to set the trim c. As airspeed increases, trim rate decreases d. As airspeed increases, trim rate increases 193. Which trim control is inhibited when the autopilot is engaged? a. Control wheel pitch trim switches b. Alternate pitch trim levers c. Both of the above 194. What is true about turn compensation? a. It is available in the secondary mode b. It is not available if the bank angle is more than 30 degrees c. Elevator input is not required if the airplane is in a 30 degree bank d. The turn compensation switch is on the overhead panel 195. What could cause the STAB GREENBAND EICAS message to be displayed? a. Power to the stabilizer position indicator is lost b. The stabilizer position indicator is unreliable c. The FMC weight entry and CG may be incorrect 196. Which control surfaces are used for roll control on the 777? a. Ailerons, Flaperons and spoilers b. Ailerons, Flaperons and slats c. Ailerons, Flaperons and flaps d. Ailerons, Flaperons and elevator
197. Auto speed brake protection is provided for which phase on flight? a. Takeoff, rejected takeoff and approach b. Takeoff, rejected takeoff and landing c. Takeoff, rejected takeoff and approach below 200 feet d. Takeoff, rejected takeoff and approach, and landing 198. Which one of the following statements is false? a. At cruise speed, spoilers 5 and 10 are locked out b. Spoilers 4 and 11 are mechanically operated c. When augmenting roll control spoilers work asymmetrically d. There are 12 spoilers 199. Under what conditions does the SPEED BRAKE EXTENDED EICAS message display? a. Speed brake are extended and the airplane is above 800 feet b. Speed brake are extended and landing flaps are selected or RA is between 15 and 800 feet c. Anytime speed brakes are extended d. After landing, if the speed brakes fail to extend 200. Which statement is NOT true regarding the flap position indicator? a. The flap position indicator is on the PFD b. The flap position indicator is magenta when slats and flaps are in transit c. The flap position indicator appears in EICAS when Flaps begin to extend d. There are three different displays: primary, secondary and alternate 201. What can you say about the FLAP DRIVE EICAS message? a. The message is displayed when the flap drive mechanism has been shut down due to an asymmetry b. The EICAS flap indicator display turns magenta c. Arm the alternate system d. The flaps will operate in secondary mode 202. Which trim controls are inhibited when the autopilot is engaged? a. Alternate pitch trim levers b. Control wheel pitch trim switches c. Both of the above d. None of the above
203. Which statement(s) are true when the primary flight computer disconnect switch is positioned to DISC?
a. Protection features are not available b. The system operates in direct mode c. Autopilot is NOT available
d. All of the above 204. What is wheel to rudder cross tie?
a. Ability to dampen dutch roll with control wheel onlyb. Ability to control initial effects of an engine failure with control wheel only c. Ability to control rudder trim with control wheel inputs
d. Ability to override rudder inputs with control wheel inputs 205. When do the control wheel stabilizer trim switches control stabilizer movement directly?
a. All the timeb. Only during approaches c. Only on the ground
d. During engine out go-around 206. 207. 208. 209. 210. What are the initial steps to extend the flaps using the alternate flap system?
a. Arm ALT FLAP ARM switch, select ALT FLAPS selector to EXTb. Arm ALT FLAP ARM switch, select NORMAL FLAPS selector to 20 c. Arm ALT FLAP ARM switch, select ALT FLAPS selector to OFF
d. Push ALT FLAP ARM switch to OFF, select ALT FLAPS selector to EXT
FLIGHT INSTRUMENTS, DISPLAYS 211. How are display select panel operations affected when EICAS is displayed on an inboard display unit? a. All display select panel operations are normal b. Inboard display unit can only display EICAS or the secondary engine display c. All display switches are inoperative except ENG, FUEL and AIR d. Any display select panel selection will be displayed on the lower center display unit 212. What does the pitch limit indicator indicate? a. Pitch angle for best climb speed b. Pitch at which under speed will sound c. Pitch limit at which stick shaker will occur d. Proper pitch angle for takeoff 213. When is the pitch limit indication displayed? a. When flaps are up and speed is near stick shaker speed b. Only when the flaps are NOT in the up position c. If airspeed is close to maximum d. After takeoff until passing 1000 feet 214. When is the landing altitude removed? a. After landing altitude is set on the pressurization panel b. After the original airfield is entered on the CDU c. After correct local altimeter is set d. Only after take off 215. When does a “localizer not captured” alert occur? a. At greater than 2 dots deviation b. Above 1000 feet radio altitude c. Localizer not captured and below 1000 RA d. Only after glide slope deviation alert 216. When does glide slope deviation occur? a. After glide slope capture and blew 500 feet b. Only after localizer capture c. Any time deviation exceeds 1 dot d. Anytime after localizer capture
217. When are range arcs displayed in the expanded VOR mode?
a. All the timeb. Only at 10, 20 and 40 mile ranges c. Over Wyoming and Colorado
d. If weather radar or TCAS data display is active 218. Which control(s) cause range marks to display in expanded VOR or APP? a. WXR map switch or TCAS TFC switch b. ND range selector
c. ND CTR switch
d. Rather fight than switch 219. What does the POS map switch display?
a. ADIRU, GPS and raw VOR position data b. Latitude/Longitude data for all waypoints c. FMC present position data
d. Waypoint ETA and altitude 220. What does the nose of the airplane symbol represent in ND Plan mode?
a. Present heading b. Present position c. Active waypoint d. A big investment 221. When will the true illuminate in the heading reference (HDG REF) switch?
a. Any time true heading is in use
b. Whenever the HDG REF switch is in the TRUE positionc. Above 82 degrees N/S latitude or in the vicinity of the magnetic poles d. After a correct answer is given 222. What cases the TRUE light to illuminate in the heading reference (HDG REF) switch?
a. The airplane is above 82 degrees N latitudeb. True heading has been automatically selected c. The HDG REF switch is in the TRUE position
d. The airplane is in the vicinity of the magnetic pole
223. When are the annunciations CDU L, C, R displayed on the ND?
a. Respective navigation source switch in CDUb. Only after a single FMC failure c. After dual FMC failure
d. Both a and c 224. Which statement about the standby attitude indicator is true?
a. It displays roll and bank only b. It displays pitch bank and slip c. It displays pitch and bank only
d. It displays pitch, bank and heading 225. What does a square icon next to an EICAS message indicate?
a. The non-normal condition is no longer present
b. There is no electronic checklist associated with this messagec. There is an electronic checklist associated with this message and the checklist is complete d. There is an electronic checklist associated with this message and the checklist is NOT complete 226. What does cyan color indicate on the electronic checklist?
a. The step must be resetb. The step must be repeated c. Do not perform the step
d. The step was performed wrong 227. Which statement about the electronic checklist NORMAL and NON-NORMAL keys is true? a. The NON-NORMAL key displays a list of the normal checklists b. The NON-NORMAL key displays the last checklist completed c. The NORMAL key displays the next normal checklist in the sequence d. The NORMAL key displays the last normal checklist completed 228. Which statement about the non-normal checklist queue is true?
a. Each checklist in the queue must be completed in the order listed
b. The checklist queue allows you to select which check list to perform nextc. While the queue is displayed, it continuously updates automatically each time a new EICAS message appears
d. The queue displays checklists for messages that do not have an icon
229. How do you display an un-annunciated non-normal checklist? a. Highlight and select the NON-NORMAL MENU key, then select the un- annunciated checklist key b. Highlight and select the NORMAL MENU key, then select the UN- ANNUNCIATED CHECKLIST key c. Highlight and select the NON-NORMAL CHECKLIST key d. Highlight and select the CHKL RESETS key, then select the UN- ANNUNCIATED CHECKLISTS key 230. What does the NOTES key do? a. The NOTES key resets the operational notes collected from non-normal checklists during flight b. The NOTES key displays the operational notes collected from non-normal checklists during flight c. The NOTES key allows you to create a note for the displayed checklist d. The NOTES key adds the displayed checklist to the notes queue 231. Which statement about resets is true? a. The CHKL RESET key resets all of the normal checklists b. The CHKL RESET key resets all of the non-normal checklists c. All checklists can be rest at once by using the RESETS key followed by the RESET ALL key d. All checklists can be rest at once by using the NON-NORMAL MENU key followed by the CHKL RESET key 232. Which statement about overrides is true? a. To override a checklist you must display that checklist and then use CHKL OVRD key b. Closed loop steps cannot be overridden c. Steps that area overridden remain white d. To override a checklist you must reset it first 233. What does the CHKL OVRD key do when selected? a. Overrides the highlighted item on the checklist b. Overrides the displayed checklist c. Displays the next checklist to be overridden d. Displays the last overridden checklist
234. What are the steps to select the status display on the left inboard display unit?
a. Select R INDB switch, then select STAT switchb. Select LWR CTR switch, then select STAT switch c. Select L INDB switch, then select STAT switch
d. Select R INDB switch, then select ENG switch 235. What are the steps to select the flight control synoptic on the right inboard display unit?
a. Select R INDB switch, then select FCTL switchb. Select LWR CTR switch, then select FCTL switch c. Select L INDB switch, then select FCTL switch
d. Select R INDB switch, then select DOOR switch FLIGHT MANAGEMENT, NAVIGATION 236. Which statement is true about the ADIRU? a. The inertial reference position is updated using information from the air data modules b. The ADIRU sends magnetic variation data to the FMC’s to convert true heading to magnetic heading c. The ADIRU receivers the same data inputs as the SAARU but compares and validates the data independently
d. If the ADIRU fails the PFD’s blank 237. What happens if the ADIRU switch is let ON, primary power is removed from the airplane and the BATTERY switch is turned off? a. The ON BAT light illuminates and the EICAS memo message ADIRU ON BAT displays
b. The ON BAT light illuminates and the ground crew call horn sounds c. The ON BAT light extinguishes when the battery switch is turned off d. Nothing. The ADIRU is always left on when securing the airplane 238. What is the data source for the standby attitude indicator?
a. ADIRU b. SAARU c. FMC
d. Either a or b
239. Which message is displayed when the ADIRU is in the alignment mode?
a. EICAS memo message ADIRU ALIGN MODE b. EICAS alert message NAV ADIRU INERTIAL c. CDU scratchpad message ADIRU ALIGN
d. CDU scratchpad message ENTER ADIRU POSITION 240. How often is a complete ADIRU alignment recommended? a. Every 15 hours b. Every 24 hours c. Whenever the total time in the navigation mode is expected to exceed 15h d. Whenever the total time in the navigation mode is expected to exceed 24h 241. How long should the ADIRU switch remain off when manually realigning the ADIRU? a. Momentarily b. 24 Seconds c. 30 Seconds d. 40 Seconds 242. Which of the following are data sources for the ADIRU? a. Air data modules only b. Static ports only c. Air data modules, AOA sensors, and TAT probe d. AOA sensors, and TAT probe only 243. Which of the following are data sources for the SAARU? a. Air data modules only b. Static ports only c. Air data modules, AOA sensors, and TAT probe d. AOA sensors, and TAT probe only 244. What is the altitude source for the transponder altitude reporting when the ALT SOURCE selector is in the NORM position?
a. ADIRU
b. SAARUc. Air data modules d. Either a or b
245. What is the altitude source for the transponder altitude reporting when the ALT SOURCE selector is in the ALTN position? a. ADIRU b. SAARU c. Air data modules d. Either a or b 246. Which of the following is inoperative with dual FMC failure? a. LNAV b. VNAV c. MAP display d. Both CDU’s 247. Which of the following pages is available following dual FMC failure? a. ALTN PERF INIT b. ALTN REF NAV DATA c. ALTN POS REF d. ALTN NAV LEGS 248. What color is the VOR data on the NAV RADIO page? a. Magenta b. Cyan c. Green d. White 249. What color is the AFD frequency data on the NAV RADIO page? a. Magenta b. Cyan c. Green d. White 250. Which of the following statements is true about FMC CDU pages? a. Dashes indicate data entry is optional b. < Erase is used to delete data in a single line c. Page titles are magenta when active d. The RTE page title is white when active
251. Which of the following ND modes can NOT display weather radar returns? a. APP centered b. APP expanded c. VOR expanded d. MAP centered 252. What is the maximum range at which turbulence can be displayed?
a. 10 nm b. 20 nm c. 40 nm d. 80 nm 253. What is represented by the color magenta in weather radar returns? a. Moderate precipitation b. Heavy precipitation c. Turbulence with precipitation d. Clear air turbulence 254. What does the WXR FAIL ANT fault message indicate? a. Weather returns will not display b. Weather returns will display but will not be reliable c. There is a problem with the radar antenna d. Both a and c 255. What does WXR FAIL R/T fault message indicate? a. Weather returns will not display b. Weather returns will display but will not be reliable c. The selected R/T has failed d. Both a and c FUEL 256. Which items listed below is not determined by the fuel quantity indicating system? a. Fuel temperature b. Fuel height c. Fuel type d. Fuel density
257. Which statement is true about supplying fuel to operate the APU prior to establishing AC power? a. The APU cannot operate because there is no fuel pressure b. The APU will operate without a fuel pump c. The left main tank has a DC fuel pump to operate the APU d. The center tank has a DC fuel pump to operate the APU 258. With no AC power available, what supplies fuel to operate the APU? a. The APU can not operate b. The APU is fed by a DC pump in the left main tank c. The APU operates by suction feed d. The APU is fed by a DC pump in the center tank 259. During preflight you notice that all main and center tank fuel pump switches are OFF but the left forward pump PRESS light is not displayed. Are these indications correct if the APU is operating? a. Yes, the left forward PRESS light is extinguished, indicating the APU is on and automatically using that pump b. Yes, the left forward PRESS light is extinguished, indicating the DC pump is on c. No, the right forward PRESS light should also be extinguished d. No, all of the PRESS lights should be extinguished when the fuel pumps are commanded off 260. Which statement is NOT true when the EICAS caution message FUEL PRESS ENG L is displayed? a. The left engine will flame out from fuel starvation b. Cross feed may be necessary to prevent thrust decay c. The left engine suction feeds from the left tank d. Both left main fuel tank pumps are inoperative 261. Select the best statement from the following: a. Fuel may be jettisoned to any minimum quantity at or above MLW b. Fuel may be jettisoned to any quantity at or below MLW c. Fuel may be jettisoned to a minimum quantity of 11,500 pounds or 5200 kg’s in each main tank
262. Which fuel pumps are used for fuel jettison? a. Left and right main fuel pumps and the center tank override pumps b. Left and right main tank jettison pumps only c. Left and right main tank jettison pumps and the center tank jettison / override pumps 263. Before engine start on the ground, the right center tank pump PRESS light is illuminated without the EICAS message FUEL PUMP CENTER R displayed. Is this condition correct?
a. Yes, one pump is electrically load shed and the message is inhibitedb. Yes, center tank fuel is not used during engine start and the message is inhibited
c. No, the EICAS message is never inhibited
d. No, the EICAS message will be displayed after a short sensing delay 264. Once the center pump tanks are turned off in flight, some fuel remains in the center tank as unusable fuel. Is this statement true?
a. Yes, main tank fuel pressure prevents any further fuel transferb. No, a scavenge system transfers remaining fuel when either main tank quantity decreases below a set level
c. Yes, the center tank fuel valves automatically close
d. No, the pumps can be turned on again to empty the center tank 265. Balancing fuel requires the use of:
a. Either cross feed valve and both pumps in the low main tank b. Both cress feed valves and both pumps in the high main tank c. Either cross feed valve and both pumps in the high main tank d. Both cress feed valves and both pumps in the low main tank 266. The sequence of fuel burn is: a. Left and right main tank to the respective engine and center tank re-supplies than main tank fuel b. Tank to engine feed is selected by configuring the fuel pumps an cross feed valves c. Left and right main tank to the respective engine until reaching 11500 pounds or 5200 kg’s, then the center tank feeds the engines until empty, then the reaming main tank fuel feeds d. Center tank fuel feeds both engines until empty then the main tanks feed their respective engine
267. When is the EICAS message FUEL PUMP CENTER L displayed? a. Any time there is no pump output pressure b. When the center tank contains fuel and the fuel pump switch off c. When the center tank is empty and the pump switch is on d. When the center tank fuel pump is on and the pump output pressure is low 268. Select the best statement of the following: a. The left and right main tank each contain two AC driven fuel pumps b. The center tank contains two override pumps and two separate jettison pumps c. The APU receives fuel from only the left main tank using a DC or AC driven pump d. The left and right main tanks each contain two jettison pumps 269. The EICAS message FUEL IN CENTER is displayed when: a. The center tank contains fuel b. A main tank fuel pump is ON c. The center tank pump switches are OFF d. All of the above together HYDRAULICS 270. What does the PRIMARY L ENG hydraulic pump FAULT light indicate? a. Engine EGT is high or engine speed is low b. The left engine primary fuel pump is inoperative c. Hydraulic pump pressure is low or temperature is high d. The left engine is faulty 271. What does the DEMAND L ELEC hydraulic pump FAULT light indicate? a. Hydraulic pump pressure is low or hydraulic pump temperature is high b. The left engine primary fuel pump is inoperative c. Automatic systems using the left system are faulty d. The auto brake system is faulty 272. How many hydraulic systems are needed to power enough of the flight control for safe flight? a. One system b. Two systems c. Three systems
273. If the left and right hydraulic systems are lost, can the center hydraulic system sufficiently power enough of the flight controls for safe flight? a. YES b. NO 274. Where are hydraulic system quantities displayed? a. Status display b. Hydraulic synoptic display c. Secondary engine display d. Both a and b 275. Which of the following cause the RAT to deploy automatically in flight? a. Center and right hydraulic system pressures are low b. Left engine is failed and center hydraulic system pressure is low c. Left AC transfer bus and right main AC bus are un-powered d. Both AC transfer busses are un-powered 276. When the RAT deploys automatically due to system failures, what does it power? a. Alternate gear extension system b. Normal brakes (after landing and airspeed below 60 kts) c. Primary flight control components normally powered by the center hydraulic system d. All of the above 277. Auto land is inoperative for which of the following conditions? a. Left hydraulic system pressure is low b. Center hydraulic system pressure is low c. Right hydraulic system pressure is low d. All of the above 278. What happens if both C1 and C2 DEMAND pump selectors are positioned to ON? a. Only the C1 DEMAND pump will operate b. Only the C2 DEMAND pump will operate c. Both the C1 and C2 DEMAND pumps will operate d. Both the C1 and C2 DEMAND pumps will operate only if C1 or C2 PRIMARY pump has low pressure
LANDING GEAR 279. Select the true statement about the alternate gear extension: a. The landing gear lever must be in the down position when using the alternate gear extension system b. After the landing gear is extended, the main gear doors close c. The normal landing gear indications are displayed on EICAS d. Landing gear may be retracted after alternate gear extension, if the normal system is operating 280. Select the true statement about the alternate gear extension: a. After the landing gear is extended, the main gear doors close b. The landing gear free falls to the down and locked position c. Landing gear cannot be retracted after alternate extension d. The landing gear lever must be in the down position 281. Which statement is true about the rudder pedals? a. The rudder pedals are best used for sharp turns b. They are locked to center at high speeds c. They control only nose wheel steering and the rudder d. They control nose wheel steering, main gear steering and the rudder 282. Which statement is true? Main gear steering is commanded: a. Whenever rudder pedals must be used for sharp turns b. When rudder pedals reach maximum deflection c. When nose wheel angle exceeds 70 degrees d. When the nose gear steering angle exceeds 13 degrees 283. What causes the BRAKE SOURCE light to illuminate? a. The EICAS advisory message BRAKE SOURCE is inoperative b. Pressure is normal in the left hydraulic system c. Normal and alternate brake system pressure is low d. The alternate brake system is on battery power only 284. How do you know that the parking brake is set? a. The EICAS message PARKING BRAKE SET is displayed b. Normal and alternate brake pressures are available c. The parking brake lever is in the up position d. The BRAKE SOURCE light is extinguished
285. What can you say about the parking brake if the PARKING BRAKE SET message is not displayed? a. It is because the APU RUNNING message is displayed b. It is not set c. It cannot be set because the brake accumulator pressure is 1500 psi d. The APU RUNNING message will hide the PARKING BRAKE set message 286. Which AUTOBRAKE selector setting would you see immediately after takeoff? a. MAX AUTO b. DISARM c. OFF d. RTO 287. Which auto brake mode provides the highest deceleration rate for landing? a. AUTOBRAKE 1 b. AUTOBRAKE MAX c. AUTOBRAKE 4 d. AUTOBRAKE WARNINGS 288. What does the CONFIG WARNING SYS advisory message indicate if it displays prior to departure? a. The takeoff configuration warning system and the master caution light are inoperative b. The takeoff configuration warning system is inoperative, or 1 or both master warning lights, or1 or both warning loudspeakers are inoperative c. The landing configuration warning system and the master warning lights are inoperative d. The takeoff and landing configuration warning system, master warning light, master caution lights, warning loudspeakers are all inoperative 289. The GPWS provides various warnings, cautions, and advisory level alerts when operating below what altitude? a. 10,000 feet barometric altitude b. 2,450 feet radio altitude c. 1,500 feet radio altitude d. 2,450 feet barometric altitude
290. What precautions should be taken if a tail strike occurs during takeoff? a. No special precautions are necessary b. The airplane should not be pressurized c. Pressurize the airplane to a lower cabin altitude 291. How is a wind shear time critical warning cancelled? a. By resetting the master warning system b. By flying out of the wind shear conditions c. By pushing the GND PROX switch 292. What are the types of TACS traffic alerts? a. None, approximate, traffic resolution, other advisory b. Other advisory, proximate advisory, traffic advisory, traffic resolution c. Other, proximate, traffic advisory, resolution advisory d. TA/RA, TA ONLY, proximate, other 293. A filed white diamond TCAS alert indicates? a. Other traffic b. Proximate traffic c. Traffic advisory (TA) d. Resolution advisory (RA) 294. A filed red square TCAS alert indicates? a. Other traffic b. Proximate traffic c. Traffic advisory (TA) d. Resolution advisory (RA) 295. What does the TCAS RA F/O EICAS advisory message indicate? a. TCAS is incapable or displaying RA vertical guidance on the Captains PFD b. TCAS is incapable or displaying RA traffic symbols on the First Officers ND c. TCAS is incapable or displaying RA traffic symbols on the Captains ND d. TCAS is incapable or displaying RA vertical guidance on the First Officers PFD
296. What does the TCAS RA CAPTAIN EICAS advisory message indicate? a. TCAS is incapable or displaying RA vertical guidance on the Captains PFD b. TCAS is incapable or displaying RA traffic symbols on the First Officers ND c. TCAS is incapable or displaying RA traffic symbols on the Captains ND d. TCAS is incapable or displaying RA vertical guidance on the First Officers PFD 297. What is the purpose of airplane system status message? a. To alert the crew of impending system malfunctions b. To provide crew awareness of system faults that may affect airplane dispatch c. To inform the crew that a malfunction is about to occur d. Status messages are for use by maintenance personnel only 298. What is the level of urgency for a time critical warning? a. A time critical warning requires immediate crew awareness and my require that crew action be performed in a timely manner b. A time critical warning is a crew reminder of the current state of manually or automatically configured airplane systems c. A time critical warning requires crew awareness and may require that crew action be accomplished as time permits d. A time critical warning require immediate crew awareness and response, and is usually associated with flight path control 299. How long will a WINDSHEAR time critical warning remain active? a. Until wind shear conditions are no linger detected b. Until the master warning light reset switch is pushed c. Until the GND PRX G/S caution light is pushed d. Until the landing gear are retracted 300. What is indicated if an amber OFFSCALE message displays on a navigation display(ND)? a. TCAS has failed b. The ATC transponder is off c. TCAS has detected a potential traffic threat that is beyond the current selected display range of the ND d. TCAS cannot display vertical guidance symbols on the ND
301.All TCAS alerts are inhit ited by a IINDSHEAR alerts b. EICAS caution messages c. System status messages d. EICAS warning messages
1 | c | 52 | b | 103 | b | 153 | b | 204 | b | 255 | d | 2 | d | 53 | a | 104 | b | 154 | a | 205 | c | 256 | c | 3 | d | 54 | b | 105 | d | 155 | d | 206 | * | 257 | c | 4 | a | 55 | c | 106 | c | 156 | b | 207 | * | 258 | b | 5 | d | 56 | a | 107 | a | 157 | c | 208 | * | 259 | a | 6 | c | 57 | d | 108 | b | 158 | a | 209 | * | 260 | a | 7 | c | 58 | c | 109 | b | 159 | a | 210 | a | 261 | c | 8 | b | 59 | c | 110 | c | 160 | a | 211 | c | 262 | c | 9 | b | 60 | d | 111 | c | 161 | d | 212 | c | 263 | a | 10 | a | 61 | b | 112 | c | 162 | b | 213 | a | 264 | b | 11 | c | 62 | a | 113 | b | 163 | c | 214 | b | 265 | c | 12 | b | 63 | c | 114 | c | 164 | c | 215 | c | 266 | d | 13 | c | 64 | b | 115 | d | 165 | b | 216 | a | 267 | d | 14 | c | 65 | b | 116 | c | 166 | d | 217 | d | 268 | a | 15 | d | 66 | a | 117 | c | 167 | b | 218 | a | 269 | d | 16 | d | 67 | a | 118 | c | 168 | a | 219 | a | 270 | c | 17 | b | 68 | b | 119 | c | 169 | b | 220 | b | 271 | a | 18 | b | 69 | d | 120 | d | 170 | d | 221 | b | 272 | a | 19 | c | 70 | c | 121 | c | 171 | a | 222 | c | 273 | a | 20 | d | 71 | b | 122 | b | 172 | b | 223 | d | 274 | d | 21 | c | 72 | a | 123 | c | 173 | a | 224 | c | 275 | d | 22 | c | 73 | d | 124 | c | 174 | c | 225 | d | 276 | c | 23 | d | 74 | d | 125 | d | 175 | a | 226 | c | 277 | a | 24 | d | 75 | b | 126 | c | 176 | b | 227 | c | 278 | a | 25 | d | 76 | c | 127 | c | 177 | a | 228 | b | 279 | d | 26 | c | 77 | a | 128 | a | 178 | c | 229 | a | 280 | b | 27 | d | 78 | a | 129 | a | 179 | d | 230 | b | 281 | c | 28 | b | 79 | b | 130 | b | 180 | b | 231 | c | 282 | d | 29 | c | 80 | a | 131 | d | 181 | d | 232 | a | 283 | c | 30 | b | 81 | a | 132 | b | 182 | c | 233 | b | 284 | a | 31 | a | 82 | b | 133 | c | 183 | d | 234 | c | 285 | b | 32 | a | 83 | b | 134 | c | 184 | a | 235 | a | 286 | c | 33 | d | 84 | d | 135 | b | 185 | a | 236 | c | 287 | b | 34 | b | 85 | c | 136 | c | 186 | a | 237 | b | 288 | b | 35 | d | 86 | c | 137 | d | 187 | c | 238 | b | 289 | b | 36 | b | 87 | a | 138 | d | 188 | b | 239 | a | 290 | b | 37 | c | 88 | c | 139 | a | 189 | a | 240 | d | 291 | b | 38 | b | 89 | a | 140 | d | 190 | b | 241 | c | 292 | c | 39 | b | 90 | c | 141 | a | 191 | b | 242 | c | 293 | b | 40 | a | 91 | c | 142 | c | 192 | d | 243 | c | 294 | d | 41 | b | 92 | c | 143 | a | 193 | a | 244 | a | 295 | d | 42 | a | 93 | b | 144 | d | 194 | c | 245 | b | 296 | a | 43 | c | 94 | a | 145 | b | 195 | c | 246 | b | 297 | b | 44 | a | 95 | c | | c | 196 | a | 247 | d | 298 | d | 45 | b | 96 | b | 146 | c | 197 | b | 248 | c | 299 | a | 46 | d | 97 | b | 147 | b | 198 | d | 249 | b | 300 | c | 47 | d | 98 | c | 148 | c | 199 | b | 250 | a | 301 | a | 48 | c | 99 | a | 149 | b | 200 | a | 251 | a | | | 49 | b | 100 | d | 150 | c | 201 | a | 252 | c | | | 50 | a | 101 | c | 151 | c | 202 | b | 253 | c | | | 51 | c | 102 | d | 152 | a | 203 | d | 254 | d | | |
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天津鸿图 | 6-12月培训计划※6.10开班~外地
空客A320机械员实操培训手册
这件号里的W,X,Y,Z是啥意思呀？
新型与经典型飞机刹车系统简述
发表于 2012-6-7 11:15:28
