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发表于 2013-10-18 13:24:24
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来自： 中国北京
CRJ200测试题（五）
Bomdardier CRJ-200 Questionnaire
SECTION 21
AIR CONDITIONING / PRESSURIZATION
1. Normal levels of the pack pressure readout, on the ECS page, are between ___and ____ PSI.
a) 5,46 psi
b) 25,52
c) 47,52
d) 47,51
2. The APU duct on the ECS synoptic page displays ____ when the APU is ready to load and barometric altitude is greater that 15,000 feet.
a) Amber
b) Green
c) Red
d) White
3. On the air-conditioning panel, which light comes on when overpressure occurs between primary heat exchanger and compressor section of air unit?
a) Ram air open light
b) L or R pack OFF light
c) Amber FAULT light
d) No lights, this is a normal condition
4. Caution levels on the pack pressure readout of the ECS page are from ____ to ____ psi.
a) 5,46
b) 25, 52
c) 47,62
d) 47,51
5. Ram air ventilation is used at all times, True or False?
a) True
b) False
6. The pressure regulator valves on the 10th stage bleed air manifold regulate air pressure supply to the air-conditioning packs at a constant rate of ___ psi for single pack operation.
a) 30
b) 35
c) 41
d) 48
7. The pneumatic system supplies air for engine starting, ice protection, air-conditioning and pressurization and thrust reverser systems, True or False?
a) 15,000
b) 17,000
8. Pneumatic bleed air for engine starting and for the airconditioning and pressurization and avionics cooling system is supplied by the 14th compressor stage of both engines. True or False?
a) True
b) False
9. The APU can be used during flight to supply the pneumatic system for engine starting (double engine failure) to a maximum altitude of ___ feet.
a) 12,000
b) 13,000
c) 15,000
d) 17,000
10. During overheat conditions, when the APU is supplying bleed air, which valves will automatically close?
a) Isolation valve and pack valve only
b) Isolation valve, pack valve and 10th stage bleed valve
c) Isolation valve and 10th stage bleed valve only
d) Isolation valve only
11. The APU can be used during flight to supply the air-conditioning system to a maximum altitude of _____ feet.
a) 12,000
b) 13,000
c) 15,000
d) 17,000
12. Opening the LCV (load control valve) allows air from the ______ to feed the left pack.
a) Engines
b) ground power cart
c) APU
d) All of the above
13. The C ALT item on the synoptic page displays _____ when more than 10,000 feet.
a) Amber
b) Green
c) Red
d) White
14. During over-temperature conditions, when the engine is supplying bleed air, which valves will automatically close?
a) Isolation valve and pack valve only
b) Isolation valve, pack valve and 10th stage bleed valve
c) Isolation valve and 10th stage bleed valve only
d) Isolation valve only
15. The right hand pack operates from the right engine bleed air and supplies the passenger cabin and flight deck, True or False?
a) True
b) False
16. The cooling air for the left and right heat exchangers is supplied from a ram air scoop, located on the upper aft fuselage. True or False?
a) True
b) False
17. When is the STBY fan on the avionics cooling system selected by the pilot?
a) As an extra source of air in overheat conditions
b) In the event of loss of GND and ALT fans
c) In the event of loss of GND fan
d) The STBY fan cannot be selected by the pilot
18. If one pack fails, the remaining pack cannot supply conditioned air to both compartments. True or False?
a) True
b) False
19. During ground operations, pneumatic air to operate ECS can be obtained from which of the following?
a) Ground power cart connected to the airplane
b) APU
c) Either or both engines
d) Al of the above
20. The air-conditioning system consists of:
a) Two packs
b) Distribution manifold and ducting
c) RAM AIR ventilation system
d) A and B are correct
21. A ______ must be opened to provide right hand portions of the pneumatic duct with air pressure.
a) Load control valve (LCV)
b) Crossfeed/isolation valve (ISOL)
c) None of the above
d) Both A and B
22. The ECS provides temperature and pressure regulated air for which of the following?
a) Venting and pressurizing the cockpit and passenger cabin
b) Engine starting
c) Cooling the avionics and equipment racks
d) Both A and C
SECTION 22
AUTOFLIGHT
23. When the autopilot's flight director fails and not the co-pilot's, it is annunciated with a ______ message on EICAS.
a) White FD 2 FAIL
b) Red AFCS MSGS FAIL
c) White FD 1 FAIL
d) None of the above
24. The range of the indicated airspeed scale on the primary flight display is from ____ to ____ knots.
a) 0-350
b) 100-400
c) 30-400
d) 30-350
25. Anytime the FCC detects a relevant failure or excessive altitudes, it will disengage the autopilot and/or yaw damper. True or False?
a) True
b) False
26. When the vertical speed mode switch is pressed, the vertical speed reference is synchronized to the current vertical speed. True or False?
a) True
b) False
27. Glideslope mode is auto-selected when:
a) In an approach mode
b) Inbound
c) With a valid localizer as the lateral navigation source
d) All of the above
28. The AIPS is partitioned into the left and right sides with each side having ___ channels.
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
29. The lateral take-off mode generates a wing level command while on the ground. True or False?
a) True
b) False
30. Which of the following is not a condition of significant instability of the airplane?
a) Pitch rate over 5 degrees/second
b) Bank angle over 55 degrees
c) Roll rate over 21 degrees/second
d) Pitch angle below 15 degrees nose-down
31. A pitch trim failure can cause autopilot disengagement. True or False?
a) True
b) False
32. The autopilot system automatically controls the
a) Pitch
b) Roll
c) Yaw
d) All of the above
33. Vertical take-off mode generates a ____ degree pitch-up command.
a) 5
b) 10
c) 15
d) 20
34. The automatic mode transition to half bank will occur at ____feet.
a) 31,600
b) 27,400
c) 29,350
d) 32,200
35. Turbulence mode cannot be selected if:
a) The automatic pitch trim is engaged
b) The on-side localizer is captured
c) The autopilot is disengaged
d) Both B and C
36. Operating the stabilizer trim lever switches on the pilot's control wheel will disconnect the autopilot, if engaged. True or False?
a) True
b) False
37. In NAV mode, capture will always occur if VOR deviation is less than 5% of full scale or localizer deviation is less than 30%. True or False?
a) True
b) False
38. The lateral take-off mode generates a wings level command while on the ground. True or False?
a) True
b) False
39. Half bank mode reduces the maximum commanded bank angle to ____ degrees.
a) 5
b) 10
c) 15
d) 20
40. The AFCS receives sensor information from:
a) The air data system
b) Navigation systems
c) Radio altimeter
d) All of the above
41. The range of the altitude pre-select knob on the flight control panel is from ____ to ____ feet.
a) 1000 - 25,000
b) 1000 - 50,000
c) 2500 - 50,000
d) None of the above
42. The autopilot responds to commands from the flight director. True or False?
a) True
b) False
SECTION 23
COMMUNICATIONS
43. Transceiver tuning range is between ____ and ____ MHz.
a) 118, 136.975
b) 110, 128.975
c) 126, 136.975
d) 118, 128.975
44. Each RTU provides _____ control of both the on-side and cross-side radios.
a) Triple point
b) Dual point
c) Single point
d) None of the above
45. The PA volume is decreased when the main engines are running and increased when the main engines are off. True or False?
a) True
b) False
46. The system label on the top level page of the Radio Tuning Unit indicates radio type and side. True or False?
a) True
b) False
47. The audio control panel is located on the overhead panel, True or False?
a) True
b) False
48. The intercom system, VHF communications transceivers, service interphone and passenger address systems comprise the basic communications system. True or False?
a) True
b) False
49. On the audio control panel, there are____ channels on the Transmit Select switch.
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
50. The passenger entertainment tape player operates through the passenger address and entertainment system. True or False?
a) True
b) False
51. The back-up controller maintains the frequencies set on COM 1 and NAV 1, permits manual tuning should the RTUs fail and is located on the overhead panel. True or False?
a) True
b) False
52. The MASK/BOOM switch is located on the audio control panel. True or False?
a) True
b) False
53. The Emergency Locator Transmitter is located in the forward section of the aircraft. True or False?
a) True
b) False
54. The CVR remote microphone is located on the pilot's console. True or False?
a) True
b) False
55. The transmission priority for the passenger address and entertainment system is: flight compartment, flight attendant stations, tape player, recorded announcements and music. True or False?
a) True
b) False
56. The CVR control unit is located on the overhead panel. True or False?
a) True
b) False
57. The ID indication on the ATC comes on for ____ seconds when the IDENT button is pressed.
a) 10
b) 15
c) 18
d) 24
58. Frequency tuning and mode selection is by CRT pages and controls on the radio tuning units. True or False?
a) True
b) False
59. The cockpit voice recorder system is located in the aft section of the airplane. True or False?
a) True
b) False
60. The ANT or TONE indication on the ADF comes on when altitude is set to either absolute or relative. True or False?
a) True
b) False
SECTION 24
ELECTRICAL
61. Battery temperature range for normal cycle charging is from ___ to ______ degrees C.
a) 0,+52
b) -29,+60
c) -29,+50
d) 0,+60
62. A battery fault indicates:
a) A weak or dead cell
b) Insufficient charge current
c) Outside temperature limits
d) Both A and C
63. The AC essential bus is normally powered by:
a) IDG 1
b) AC bus 2
c) Can't tell, depends on selections
d) AC bus 1
64. When AC external power is connected to the aircraft and meets pre-set voltage specifications:
a) All AC buses are automatically energized.
b) The AVAIL light in the external power push switch-light is illuminated.
c) The utility busses are energized
d) The battery chargers are connected automatically to the external power source.
65. The external DC power receptacle is located at the:
a) Forward part of the airplane
b) Aft part of the airplane
c) Right engine pylon
d) Left engine pylon
66. The AC generator switch OFF/RESET position:
a) Resets the corresponding generator fail indication presented on the CAS field.
b) Removes generator from line and resets generator after a fault trip.
c) Simply switches the generator ON and OFF
d) Resets the constant speed unit to the proper RPM which will allow the generator to supply the proper voltage and/or frequency.
67. The external DC power receptacle is located at the:
a) Forward RH side of the forward fuselage
b) At the external power control panel on the LH wing
c) At the RH side of the tail section
d) Below the batteries access panel
68. When DC Tie is manually closed this:
a) Allows the service TRU to power the respective DC bus, the connected utility bus is automatically shed.
b) ?
c) ?
d) ?
69. The integrated drive generators and the APU generator power the airplane AC busses by a priority system, The switching priority for AC bus 1 is as follows.
a) IDG 2, IDG 1, APU generator, external power
b) IDG 2, APU generator, IDG 1, external power
c) IDG 1, APU generator, IDG 2, external power
d) IDG 1, IDG 2, APU generator, external power
70. On the AC electrical synoptic page the KVA box is color coded, when the corresponding generator is properly delivering to the AC network this is indicated by the color.
a) white
b) blue
c) magenta
d) green
71. Auto transfer switch-light FAIL light indicates:
a) Automatic transfer occurred because of a failed AC generator.
b) Corresponding AC bus has failed, generator must be reset, automatic transfer did not occur.
c) Corresponding AC bus is isolated, automatic transfer did not occur.
d) Corresponding AC bus is isolated, transfer must be manually selected.
72. Circuit breaker panel 2 is located behind the pilot's seat. True or False?
a) True
b) False
73. DC Tie 1, 2 and 3 connect another DC power source in case of primary power failure. DC Ties 1 and 2 are:
a) Automatic Ties but can also manually be selected while tie 3 is only automatic selectable.
b) Automatic Ties but cannot be selected manually, while tie 3 is only manual selectable.
c) Automatic Ties but can also manually be selected while tie 3 is only manual selectable.
d) Automatic Ties but cannot be selected manually, while tie 3 is only equipped with an automatic function.
74. The airplane battery and the APU battery will provide emergency DC power if the battery master switch is ON and the airplane has lost AC power (AIDG deployed). True or False?
a) True
b) False
75. External AC power is supplied through the AC receptacle located at the:
a) Forward part of the airplane
b) Aft part of the airplane
c) Right engine pylon
d) Left engine pylon
76. A charger fault indicates:
a) A weak or dead cell
b) Insufficient charge current
c) Internal over-temperature
d) Both B and C
77. How many 100-ampere transformer rectifier units (TRU) convert the AC supply into 28 Volts DC?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
78. Each generator control unit controls and monitors the related AC generator system and provides protection for:
a) Over and under voltage generator output
b) Over and under frequency generator output
c) Generator and bus 0ver-current
d) All of the above
e)
79. Loss of power from the left engine's generator will transfer the AC essential bus the right engine's generator automatically. True or False?
a) True
b) False
80. External AC has the _____ priority of any system.
a) Highest
b) Lowest
81. Electrical system failures are indicated:
a) on the primary EICAS page and electrical system page.
b) on the EICAS, the electrical control panel and electrical system pages
c) on the EICAS, the RTU and electrical system pages
d) on the EICAS status page and electrical system pages
82. The main airplane and APU batteries can be charged through external DC power. True or False?
a) True
b) False
83. he battery chargers will shut down as follows:
a) When the charging cycle exceeds a 90-minute time period
b) When a battery fault is detected
c) When a battery charger fault is detected
d) All of the above
84. When the AC power IN USE switch/light is illuminated:
a) the AC network is partially powered
b) the DC network is partially powered
c) all AC and DC busses are powered
d) The AC network is completely powered.
85. The DC essential bus and DC busses 1 and 2 can be cross-tied by operating the appropriate bus tie switch/lights. True or False?
a) True
b) False
86. Priority of the several AC sources can best be described as:
a) On-side IDG, APU GEN, Off-side IDG and AIDG
b) On-side IDG, Off-side IDG, APU GEN and External power.
c) External power, On-side IDG, APU GEN and Off-side IDG.
d) On-side IDG, APU GEN, Off-side IDG and External power.
87. The CSD (constant speed drive) is driven by the variable engine accessory gearbox RPM and uses:
a) Mechanical brake energy to control the speed of the generator
b) An integral hydro mechanical oil system to maintain a constant speed for the generator
c) Increased or decreased generator load to control the speed of the generator
d) A separate gearbox driven by the accessory gearbox to control the speed of the generator
88. The AC and DC electrical synoptic pages can be accessed by:
a) Select ELEC on the ECP, toggling between pages by another push on the STEP button
b) Select ELEC on the ECP, toggling between pages by another push on the same button
c) Select ELEC on the ECP, toggling between pages by another push on the UP and DOWN buttons
d) Select ELEC on the ECP, toggling between pages by another push on the SEL button
89. When AC ESS XFER light on the electrical control panel is illuminated the AC essential bus is powered by:
a) AC utility bus 2
b) AC bus 2
c) IDG 2
d) AC bus 1
90. The ADG supplies 115-volt, 400-Hz, 3-phase AC power at ____ KVA for emergency use when all other sources have been lost.
a) 15
b) 30
c) 28
d) 24
91. The DC service bus is powered by:
a) Normally by the SERV TRU or by APU BATT with DC service switch on the electrical control panel selected ON.
b) Normally by the ESS TRU or by APU generator with DC service switch on the electrical control panel selected ON.
c) Normally by the SERV TRU or by APU BATT with DC service switch on the electrical control panel selected to SERV..
d) Normally by the SERV TRU or by APU generator with DC service switch on the electrical control panel selected ON.
92. IDG 1, 2" caution on the EICAS primary page comes on to indicate that IDG has low oil pressure or oil temperature greater than ____ degrees C.
a) 100
b) 140
c) 160
d) 180
93. Which systems are NOT available with EMER power only?
a) Air Condition/pressurization, Hydraulics, ground & flight Spoilers
b) Air Condition/pressurization, Flaps flight spoilers
c) Air Condition/pressurization, Flaps, ground & flight Spoilers
d) Air Condition/pressurization, Flaps, ground & flight Spoilers
94. Circuit breaker panel 3 is located below the pilot's side console. True or False?
a) True
b) False
95. The APU generator is mounted directly on the APU and is driven at a constant speed of ____ rpm.
a) 9,840
b) 12,000
c) 17,500
d) None of the above
96. Why is the use of AC external power recommended when battery power is to be used for a prolonged period of time?
a) There is no such recommendation.
b) Cooling fans for display units are AC powered, so no display cooling is available when on battery power only.
c) This way the battery chargers are powered which will extend the use of the battery.
d) When on battery power only thee are no EICAS indications since this system is AC powered
97. The TRU‟s powered by the AC generators are used:
a) To deliver DC power to the DC system under normal conditions
b) To deliver DC power to the DC system in emergency situations
c) To deliver DC power to the engine start and iginition system
d) To deliver DC power for battery charging
98. When the IDG disconnect switch is pushed and the IDG fails to disconnect:
a) A mechanical disconnect will occur when CSD internal temperature exceeds a limit or by shearing of the accessory gearbox drive shaft when a over-torque condition is detected.
b) A mechanical disconnect will occur when CSD internal oil pressure drops below a limit or by shearing of the accessory gearbox drive shaft when a over-torque condition is detected.
c) A mechanical disconnect will occur when CSD internal temperature exceeds a limit or by shearing of the IDG drive shaft when a over-torque condition is detected.
d) A mechanical disconnect will occur when CSD emergency disconnect handle is pulled or by shearing of the IDG drive shaft when a over-torque condition is detected.
99. When both IDG's are lost, and the APU GEN is lost or off, the ADG is automatically deployed resulting in EMER power only situation. The following systems are lost:
a) Air-conditioning and pressurization, Yaw damper 2, Ground and flight spoilers and Flaps.
b) Air-conditioning, Yaw damper 1, Ground and flight spoilers.
c) Air-conditioning and pressurization, Yaw dampers, Ground and flight spoilers and Auto-pilot
d) Air-conditioning and pressurization, Yaw damper 2, Ground and flight spoilers and Stall warning stick pusher.
100. The 17-ampere 24-volt main battery provides power to which system(s)?
a) Backup power to the AHRS, PSEU and APU ECU
b) Backup power to the EICAS DCU’s and airplane clocks
c) Battery power to the flight compartment lighting system
d) All of the above
101. Monitoring of system status is done using the EICAS AC synoptic page. The AC bus system consists of the following buses:
a) AC bus 1 and 2, AC essential bus, AC service bus, AC non essential busses 1 and
b) AC bus 1, AC essential bus I and 2, ADG bus, AC non-essential busses 1 and 2.
c) AC bus 1 and 2, AC essential bus, AC service bus, AC utility busses 1 and 2.
d) AC bus I and 2, AC essential bus, ADG bus, AC utility busses I and 2
102. When the Battery master switch is selected ON:
a) APU and Main batteries supply power to MAIN BATT DIR BUS, the APU DIR BUS and the BATT BUS.
b) Main batteries supply power to MAIN BATT DIR BUS.
c) APU and Main batteries supply power to MAIN BATT DIR BUS and the APU DIR BUS.
d) APU and Main batteries supply power to MAIN BATT DIR BUS, the APU DIR BUS and the ESS BUS.
103. In case of dual generator failure:
a) the inverter powered by the APU generator is still available.
b) the complete DC system will be automatically supplied by the batteries.
c) the ADG is automatically deployed.
d) the DC system will be without power
104. Battery chargers, powered by the DC utility busses, maintain the main and APU batteries in a charged condition. True or False?
a) True
b) False
105. AC power is generated by:
a) Two generators, APU generator and an ADG
b) Two IDG's, APU generator and an air driven IDG
c) Two IDG's, APU generator and an AIDG
d) Two ADG's, APU generator and an IDG
106. Emergency electrical DC power is available on the DC essential bus, left and right battery bus, APU battery bus and main battery direct bus. True or False?
a) True
b) False
107. DC power is generated by:
a) Aircraft batteries only
b) A DC generator driven by the engine accesory gearbox
c) 5 static inverters and two aircraft batteries
d) The aircraft batteries and the transformer rectifier units (TRU)
108. The _____ APU battery provides cranking power for starting the APU.
a) 43 ampere hour 28 volts
b) 43-ampere hour 24 volt
c) 17-ampere hour 24 volt
d) 17-ampere hour 28 volt
109. Galley system circuit breakers are used to protect ovens and the coffee maker. True or False?
a) True
b) False
110. A weak or dead cell and internal over-temperature are indications of what?
a) A charger fault
b) An electrical fault
c) A DC bus fault
d) A battery fault
111. Which systems are NOT available with EMER power only?
a) Air conditioning/pressurization, flaps, Ground & Flight spoilers and Yaw Damper 1
b) Air conditioning/pressurization, flaps, Flight spoilers and Yaw Damper 1
c) Air conditioning/pressurization, flaps, Ground spoilers and Yaw Damper 2
d) Air conditioning/pressurization, flaps, Ground & Flight spoilers and Yaw Damper 2
112. The ADG bus supplies AC power to the AC essential bus. True or False?
a) True
b) False
113. Which busses are powered by the ADG?
a) The complete AC network except AC utility busses
b) ADG Bus, AC essential bus and DC essential bus via the ESS TRU 1.
c) ADG bus only
d) ADG, AC essential and AC utility busses
SECTION 25
EQUIPMENT / FURNISHINGS
114. A waste system is provided to drain, rinse, prime and flush the toilet. True or False?
a) True
b) False
115. The toilet has an integral 70-liter tank, and a motor pump and timer control the flushing cycle. True or False?
a) True
b) False
116. An adjustable water shut off valve is located within the galley area to shut off or control water flow to the coffee/water dispenser. True or False?
a) True
b) False
117. Controls, indicators and circuit breakers for the lavatory portion of the water system are located on the potable water system control panel. True or False?
a) True
b) False
118. _____ water system servicing panels are provided on the exterior lower fuselage.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
119. The water system supplies potable water to:
a) The water dispenser in the galley
b) Coffee maker in the galley
c) Sink in the lavatory
d) Both A and B
120. Fresh water is supplied to the lavatory sink faucet from a single 19-liter water tank, located _____.
a) In the upper fuselage area of the baggage compartment
b) Under the galley floor
c) Under the baggage compartment floor
d) In the lavatory compartment
121. The waste tank empties through a cable-operated drain valve and exits the airplane via a heated waste valve on the exterior servicing panel. True or False?
a) True
b) False
122. The toilet is a flush type with a priming pre-charge of __ liters.
a) 7.8
b) 8.7
c) 9.2
d) 9.6
123. Fresh water is supplied to the galley from a single 19-liter water tank, located _____.
a) In the upper fuselage area of the baggage compartment
b) Under the galley floor
124. An adjustable water shut off valve is located_____ in the lavatory service compartment to control or shut off water flow to the faucet.
a) Under the wash basin
b) Behind the toilet
SECTION 26
FIRE PROTECTION
125. When the APU fire push switch-light is pushed both squibs are armed and the armed/discharge lights are illuminated, furthermore
a) APU fuel feed SOV closes, APU shut down is initiated, APU LCV closes, APU generator is tripped OFF
b) APU fuel feed SOV closes, APU LCV opens, APU generator is tripped OFF
c) APU shut down is initiated, APU LCV closes, APU generator is tripped OFF
d) APU fuel feed SOV closes, APU shut down is initiated, APU LCV opens, APU generator is tripped OFF.
126. What happens when the smoke density in the cargo compartment exceeds a pre-determined limit but only detected by one of the smoke detectors?
a) Power to the cargo compartment fan and heater is removed.
b) A signal is send to EICAS
c) Cargo compartment air is shut off
d) All of the above
127. Two firex bottles located where provide engine fire extinguishing agent?
a) Under pilot’s seat
b) Main landing gear wheel wells
c) Cargo compartment
d) Rear fuselage equipment bay
128. What happens when smoke density in the lavatory exceeds a predetermined level?
a) The smoke detector sends a signal to EICAS
b) The smoke detector sounds an aural alarm in the lavatory
c) Both A and B
d) None of the above
129. Overheat detection systems are installed in the jet-pipe and pylon areas of each engine and in the main gear wheel wells. True or False?
a) True
b) False
130. Each fire and overheat detection system consists of dual heat sensing elements, which are mounted parallel to each other in which area(s)?
a) APU compartment
b) LH and RH nacelle, zone A
c) LH and RH jet-pipe and pylon, zone B
d) All of the above
131. When the APU fire push switch, on the co-pilot's glare-shield panel, is pushed in:
a) APU firex bottle squib is armed and the APU fuel feed SOV closes
b) APU fire shutoff relay is energized to shutdown the APU
c) APU bleed air load control valve closes
d) All of the above
132. Where does the fire protection system provide the means to detect and extinguish a fire?
a) Galley
b) Engine nacelles
c) APU compartment
d) Both B and C
133. Fire extinguishing in the lavatory waste compartment is carried out manually. True or False?
a) True
b) False
134. How is the cargo firex bottle tested?
a) Using the cargo fire push button on the glare-shield.
b) Using the cargo firex test switch on the fire detection and firex monitor panel.
c) Using the cargo firex test switch on the cargo fire control panel.
d) Can only be tested by maintenance on ground.
135. Operation of mobile transceivers in close proximity to the smoke detectors may cause a false alarm. True or False?
a) True
b) False
136. APU fire extinguishing operate either in ground or air mode, the difference between modes is the fact that on ground the APU automatically shuts down while in air this is a pilot action. True or False?
a) True
b) False
137. The cargo compartment has two smoke detectors installed under-floor. True or False?
a) True
b) False
138. When the LH or RH fire push switch-light is pressed the bottle squibs are armed and both switch-lights illuminate, furthermore:
a) The bleed air SOV closes, hydraulic SOV closes and the engine driven generator is tripped OFF
b) The fuel feed SOV closes, bleed air SOV closes and the engine driven generator is tripped OFF
c) The fuel feed SOV closes, bleed air SOV closes, hydraulic SOV closes and the engine driven
d) generator is tripped OFF
139. Both the detection systems and extinguishing systems permit testing and monitoring for system faults from the _____.
a) Flight compartment
b) Ground service crew
c) Flight attendant compartment
d) None of the above
140. Engine Fire squibs are tested during pre-flight using the following test procedure:
a) Fire push light pushed and illuminated armed discharge light pushed resulting in SQUIB OK status message on the secondary EICAS page.
b) Selecting the engine bottle switch on the FIREX monitor panel to test which will result in LH/RH squib 1 and 2 message on the EICAS status page.
c) Selecting the engine bottle switch on the fire detection panel to test which will result in LH/RH squib I and 2 message on the EICAS status page.
d) Pushing Fire push light and selecting the engine bottle switch on the FIREX monitor panel to test resulting in SQUIB OK aural message.
141. L FIRE FAIL Caution message indicates:
a) After a detected fire the extinguishing system has failed.
b) Indicates a engine fire detector loop failure (A or B).
c) Indicates both on-side fire detector loops failed.
d) Both fire extinguisher bottles are discharged but a fire is still detected by the one of the fire detector loops.
142. What happens when a fire, overheat or smoke condition is sensed by the applicable system?
a) Visual message on the EICAS primary display
b) The relevant switch/lights on the glare-shield panel come on
c) An aural warning may be provided
d) All of the above
143. When the APU fire warning horn is heard this indicates;
a) There is a APU fire detected, crew must respond to extinguish by selecting the armed/discharge switch-light on the external control panel.
b) There is a APU fire and the fire bottle is already been discharged.
c) There is a APU fire but automatic fire fighting system failed, so crew intervention is mandatory.
d) There is a APU fire detected and the system will commence in fire fighting after 10 seconds.
144. Each firex bottle is equipped with:
a) Pressure gauge and a left and right discharge line
b) Two pressure relief valves and a left and right squib
c) A left and right squib and a pressure relief valve
d) Both B and C
c)
145. After discharge of the first bottle into no 1 Engine making use of the push dot discharge switch-light, the second bottle is discharged by means of:
a) Pushing the same switch-light after 30 seconds
b) Pushing any illuminated armed/discharge light on the glare-shield will discharge the second bottle into the engine
c) Pushing the same switch-light after selecting OTHR ENG switch on the fire protection panel.
d) Pushing the off-side illuminated fire bottle switch-light
146. After a successful engine fire fighting procedure, the extinguished fire is indicated by:
a) An Aural message “LH/RH FIRE OUT”
b) a silenced fire bell
c) an extinguishing bottle armed/discharge switchlight
d) an extinguished Fire push light
SECTION 27
FLIGHT CONTROLS
147. Computer-controlled stabilizer trim is available from the____and Mach trim.
a) SECU 1
b) SECU 2
c) AFCS
d) None of the above
148. The four spoiler panels located on the upper surface of each wing function to dump lift and increase drag to assist other breaking systems during landing or in the event of a rejected take-off. True or False?
a) True
b) False
149. In case of a disconnected elevator:
a) Flaps have to be selected to regain pitch control.
b) The aircraft has to be trimmed fully nose-up to regain pitch control.
c) The aircraft has to be trimmed fully nose- down to regain pitch control.
d) Normal flight operation without excessive trimming is possible.
150. Aileron, horizontal stabilizer and rudder trim controls are provided at:
a) The center pedestal and overhead panel
b) The overhead panel and control wheel switched
c) The center pedestal and control wheel switches
d) None of the above
151. There are ______ spoiler panels located on the upper surface of each wing, just forward of the flaps.
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 6
152. Trim of the primary flight controls is:
a) aileron and rudder mechanical, stabilizer hydraulically
b) all electrical.
c) aileron and rudder hydraulically, stabilizer mechanical.
d) aileron and rudder electrical/ hydraulically, stabilizer electrically.
153. All flap segments are mechanically bussed together on each side for simultaneous _____ and ____.
a) Selection, monitoring
b) Actuation, monitoring
c) Actuation, deployment
d) Extension and retraction
154. Longitudinal control is provided by the ____ and supplemented by a moveable horizontal stabilizer for maintaining longitudinal trim.
a) Elevators
b) Ailerons
c) Rubber
d) None of the above
155. Elevator up or down position can checked on :
a) the relevant EICAS system page.
b) the PFD.
c) the FIVIS system page.
d) the elevator indicator on the main instrument panel.
156. The flaps are driven by two AC power drive units (PDU) when one of them fails, flap operation:
a) is not affected
b) is no longer available, flaps will remain stationary in last selected position
c) speed is 50% of normal speed
d) only the outer segments will remain operational.
157. Flap position is indicated on primary EICAS page:
a) at all times.
b) when flaps are selected greater than zero degrees.
c) when the landing gear is not up and locked
d) both b and c are correct but in addition also when BTMS is in red range of operation.
158. Aileron positions are shown on the _____ page of EICAS.
a) Primary
b) Menu
c) Status
d) Flight controls
159. Elevator control is a dual system, that:
a) is normally inter-connected by a pitch-disconnect unit.
b) is normally not inter-connected.
c) operates completely independent of each other
d) is always inter-connected.
160. Two independent yaw damper systems operate continuously in flight to improve the airplane's lateral/directional stability and turn coordination. True or False?
a) True
b) False
161. The primary flight surfaces are _____ actuated.
a) Electronically
b) Manually
c) Hydraulically
d) None of the above
162. The horizontal stabilizer assist the elevators in providing____.
a) Roll control
b) Pitch control
c) Rudder deflection
d) All of the above
163. Flight spoilers provide lift dumping in flight. True or False?
a) True
b) False
164. Position and status of the primary flight controls can be displayed at:
a) EICAS main page
b) FMS flight control page
c) PFD system page
d) EICAS flight controls system page
165. The stall protection system provides the flight crew with aural, visual and feel indications of an impending stall and, if no corrective action is taken, the system activates:
a) The FECU
b) The stick pusher mechanism
c) The SECU
d) All of the above
166. A Gust lock device:
a) locks the elevator in the AND position.
b) locks the elevator in the ANU position.
c) does not lock the elevator, only ailerons and rudder..
d) is not installed so the elevator, ailerons and rudder are not locked by a gust-lock.
167. How many flutter dampers are on each elevator?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
168. When the aileron are disconnected during flight the spoileron system:
a) is partially de-activated, on the non operational aileron side the spoileron is also non operational.
b) is partially de-activated, on the operational aileron side the spoileron is de-activated.
c) is de-activated, both spoileron are locked in neutral position
d) is still fully operational provided the roll select push button on the glare shield is pushed.
169. When the elevator disconnect unit is disconnected:
a) this can be reset by pushing the 'RESET STBY ELEV p/b.
b) this can only be reset with the AP off.
c) this can only be reset on-ground.
d) this can be reset at all times, by placing dicopnnect handle in normal position.
170. The Mach trim system provides longitudinal stability at airspeeds above Mach ____.
a) 0.35
b) 0.4
c) 0.55
d) 0.6
171. flaps are:
a) electrically operated
b) hydraulically operated
c) mechanically operated
d) electrically controlled and hydraulically operated
e)
172. A rudder disconnect unit:
a) Is installed for maintenance testing
b) Is installed in the yaw damper system
c) Is not installed
d) Is installed to maintain controllability in case of a jammed rudder control system
173. The ground spoilers have only two positions: Fully retracted during flight or fully deployed at 45 degrees after landing. True or False?
a) True
b) False
174. An aileron disconnect unit is installed to:
a) disconnect aileron control during taxi with high gusts conditions.
b) disconnect ailerons to prevent 'Dutch Roll'.
c) disconnect controls for flight control testing.
d) regain roll-control in case of a jammed aileron situation.
175. Spoilerons prevent aileron or elevator flutter when hydraulic fluid is lost at the aileron or elevator PCU‟s. True or False?
a) True
b) False
176. On the rudder position scale of the EICAS flight controls page, the left tick mark represents ____ degrees.
a) 23.6
b) 24.6
c) -20.8
d) 33
177. Flap position indication has a relation with:
a) inboard flap segment only
b) outboard flap segment only
c) both flap segments
d) indicates the outboard but till has a relation with the inboard segment
178. Primary flight controls interconnected by a disconnect unit are:
a) rudder, elevator and aileron.
b) elevator and ailerons.
c) elevator and rudder.
d) ailerons and rudder
179. The secondary flight controls consist of the horizontal stabilizer, inboard and outboard flaps, flight spoilers, ground spoilers and the various trim systems. True or False?
a) True
b) False
180. On the right aileron position scale of the EICAS flight controls page, the top tick mark represents ____ degrees.
a) 23.6
b) 24.6
c) 20.8
d) 33
e)
181. What happens, during ground operations, when switching power of the APU generator to the engine generator #2, and vice versa?
a) A momentary power loss on DC bus 2
b) Disengagement of yaw damper #2
c) Disengagement of yaw damper #1
d) Both A en B
182. Selectable Flaps positions are:
a) Any position between 0 and 45 degrees
b) 0, 8, 20 and 45
c) 0, 8, 30 and 45
d) 0, 8, 20, 30 and 45
183. The spoileron panel on each wing operates with the ailerons to provide ____ control.
a) Pitch
b) Roll
c) Yaw
d) None of the above
184. The Canadair Regional Jet is equipped with:
a) Hydraulically boosted primary flight controls.
b) Electrically operated primary flight controls.
c) Conventional cable-actuated primary flight controls.
d) a digital operated fly-by-wire primary flight controls system.
185. Elevator trim is done with:
a) an elevator trim wheel in the pedestal.
b) elevator electrical trim switches or an elevator trim wheel on the pedestal.
c) electrical stabilizer trim switches.
d) a stabilizer trim wheel.
186. In order to disconnect the left- and right elevator system in case of a jammed elevator:
a) a higher than normal force has to applied to the control column.
b) the disconnect p/b has to be pressed.
c) the pitch disconnect handle has to be rotated 90 degrees to either side.
d) the AP has to be disconnected.
187. When the ailerons are trimmed:
a) the 'zero' position of the ailerons are changed.
b) both left and right trim tabs are actuated.
c) only the right aileron trim tab is actuated.
d) the spoileron is selected to a "trimmed" position.
188. Directional control about the yaw axis is provided by the _____ system(s).
a) Yaw damper
b) Rudder control system
c) Pitch control
d) All of the above
189. Hydraulic power from all three hydraulic systems is necessary to set aileron trim. True or False?
a) True
b) False
190. The primary flight controls are the:
a) Ailerons
b) Elevators
c) Rudder
d) All of the above
e)
SECTION 28
FUEL
191. There are two fuel cross flow systems, a powered- and a gravity cross flow system, the purpose of these systems is:
a) create fuel flow from one of the wing tanks to the opposite engine in order to balance the wing tank quantities.
b) moving fuel between wing tanks to balance the wing tank quantities.
c) moving fuel from the center tank to one of the wing tanks to balance the wing tank quantities.
d) use center collector tank fuel to provide fuel flow for the APU.
192. The temperature of fuel in tanks is continuously monitored by a fuel temperature sensor installed where?
a) Right wing tank
b) Center tank
c) Left wing tank
d) All of the above
193. The airplane level variation is read from two inclinometers located where?
a) On the left side of the pilot's bulkhead
b) On the right side of the pilot's bulkhead
c) Below the pilot's bulkhead
d) None of the above
194. How many compensator units are there in each main tank?
a) I
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
195. The refuel/de-fuel panel is installed on the right side of the fuselage forward of the right wing, an optional panel is installed on the flight deck.
a) The optional panel has priority over the external panel.
b) Both panel has the same priority.
c) The external panel has priority over the optional panel.
d) The optional has priority provided the priority switch is set to "FLT DCK".
196. The GRAVITY/XFLOW switch turns on the cross-flow/APU pump. True or False?
a) True
b) False
197. In the event of a momentary negative "G" condition in flight, positive fuel flow is supplied to the APU by the right engine fuel feed line. True or False?
a) True
b) False
198. Gravity defueling is possible through fuel drain valves installed at the highest point of each tank. True or False?
a) True
b) False
199. The collector tanks are located:
a) In the outer wing section
b) In the inner wing section
c) Within the feeder tanks
d) In the center tank
200. A dual channel fuel system computer continuously monitors which sub-systems?
a) Fuel quantity indicating and fuel balance
b) Fuel feed
c) Refuel/defuel
d) All of the above
201. The maximum usable fuel load for a pressure refueled aircraft is:
a) 4760 lb. in both wings and 4998 lb. in the center tank which is 14518 lb. in total.
b) 4488 lb. in both wings and 4930 lb. in the center tank, which is 13906 lb. in total.
c) 2159 Kg. in both wings and 2267 Kg. in the center tank which is 6585 Kg in total.
d) both A and C are correct.
202. There are ____ fuel quantity probes in each main tank.
a) 2
b) 3
c) 5
d) 6
203. There are _____ fuel quantity probes in each center tank.
a) 2
b) 3
c) 5
d) 6
204. The fuel flow readout, on the EICAS primary page, indicates fuel quantity, in kilograms per hour, to the respective engine. True or False?
a) True
b) False
205. How many pounds of fuel does the center tank hold?
a) 4760
b) 4998
c) 2135
d) 700
206. How many pounds of fuel does the left main tank hold?
a) 4760
b) 4998
c) 2135
d) 700
207. If fuel quantity imbalance between the main tanks exceeds through _____ kg a FUEL IMBALANCE caution message is presented on EICAS.
a) 162
b) 179
c) 181
d) 193
208. During manual pressure refueling, high level sensors installed in each tank automatically close the refuel/defuel SOVs if the maximum fuel level capacity is inadvertently exceeded. True or False?
a) True
b) False
209. Fuel stored in the center tank is used:
a) For APU fuel feed
b) Only for extended range flights
c) First before the wing tanks are used
d) At the same time the wing tanks are used
210. The fuel system computer initiated automatic fuel crossflow upon detecting a fuel imbalance of _____ kg.
a) 75
b) 80
c) 90
d) 95
211. Fuel is stored in ____ main wing tanks and one auxiliary center-wing tank.
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 6
212. Gravity refueling of the main tanks and center tank is carried out through filler caps installed on the upper wing surface. True or False?
a) True
b) False
213. Water drain valves, installed at various low points, permit testing of fuel for contamination. True or False?
a) True
b) False
SECTION 29
HYDRAULICS
214. Selecting hydraulic pumps 1B and 2B in AUTO mode causes pumps 1B and 2B to operate when:
a) Respective bus is powered, the associated generator is operating and the flaps are not at zero degrees.
b) Respective bus is powered, the associated generator is operating and the hydraulic system pressure drops below 2100 PSI.
c) Respective bus is powered, the associated generator is operating and the flaps are greater than eight degrees.
d) Respective bus is powered, hydraulic demands are increased beyond the capability of the 1A and 2A ACMP's.
215. System 3 hydraulic lines pass through the wings and are cooled by____ .
a) Fuel
b) Engine bleed air
c) Ram air ventilation
d) Avionics cooling exhaust outflow
216. Systems I and 2 are serviced by ground service panels located in the ____
a) RH fuselage
b) LH fuselage
c) Aft equipment bay
d) None of the above
217. Systems 1 and 2 are each powered by an EDP and an AC motor pump. True or False?
a) True
b) False
218. Electrically-operated ball shut-off valves are installed on the suction lines for the engine-driven pumps 1A and 2A. True or False?
a) True
b) False
219. During normal operation, system 1 provides hydraulic pressure to:
a) Right side primary flight controls
b) Right side spoileron
c) Outboard brakes
d) None of the above
220. System 3 provides hydraulic pressure to:
a) Flight controls (both sides)
b) Landing gear and inboard brakes
c) Nose wheel steering
d) All of the above
221. Pump 3B is automatically run during an AC power failure. True or False?
a) True
b) False
222. The EDP‟s draw fluid from their reservoirs through _____.l
a) AC motor pump toggle switches
b) Pressure relief valve
c) Firewall shut-off valves
d) None of the above
223. The outboard brake pressure readout, on the EICAS hydraulic page, displays amber to indicate pressure is less than 1000 psi. True or False?
a) True
b) False
224. The two engine driven hydraulic pumps (EDP 1 and 2) are the main hydraulic power source for the systems:
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) 1 and 3
225. The ADG, when deployed, energizes ACMP 3b:
a) when pressure in system 3 drops below threshold.
b) upon 3B switch selection to ON.
c) automatically, regardless of switch position.
d) when the AC network is restored.
226. Pump 3B is operated during takeoffs and landings. True or False?
a) True
b) False
227. System 2 provides hydraulic pressure to:
a) Right side primary flight controls
b) Right side spoileron
c) Outboard brakes
d) All of the above
228. If IDG 2 is disconnected, hydraulic pump 1B is load shed, and the APU generator cannot power pump 1B. True or False?
a) True
b) False
229. Normal hydraulic system pressure is:
a) Between 0 and 3000 PSI
b) Can’t tell, this depends on accumlator pre-load
c) Approximately 3000 PSI
d) Between 1800 and 3000 PSI
230. Hydraulic systems 1and 2 hydraulic fluid is cooled using a single air/hydraulic fluid heat exchanger which is located in the aft equipment bay. The following applies to the described system.
a) Although systems 1 and 2 share the heat exchanger there is no mixing of hydraulic fluid of the two systems
b) Since there is only one hat exchanger both systems must be pressurized to prevent mixing of hydraulic fluid between the two systems
c) On ground use of hydraulic system 1 and 2 must be avoided because of insufficient cooling of hydraulic oil.
d) At very low temperatures (10C and lower) during start-up the heat exchanger cooling air is by-passed around the heat exchanger.
231. The inboard brake pressure readout, on the EICAS hydraulic page, displays green to indicate pressure is between ____ and 3200 psi.
a) 500
b) 700
c) 1000
d) 1500
232. Only hydraulic system no 2 is providing hydraulic power for the :
a) inboard brakes
b) outboard ground spoilers
c) outboard brakes
d) outboard flight spoilers
233. The electrically hydraulic shut-off valves are installed in the supply lines of engine driven pumps 1A and 2A, and are normally open. These valves can be closed:
a) De-selecting the corresponding 1A or 2A hydraulic pump.
b) Thrust lever of the associated engine to cut-off position.
c) Pushing the ENG FIRE push switch-light on the glare shield.
d) Pulling circuit breaker of the valve will close the spring loaded valve.
234. All hydraulic systems operate a nominal pressure of 20,685 kPa. True or False?
a) True
b) False
235. AC-motor pumps 1B and 2B will automatically start during an engine failure. True or False?
a) True
b) False
236. The function of the in the hydraulic system installed accumulators is:
a) to satisfy the instantaneous demands of aircraft systems and dampening of pressure surges within the hydraulic system.
b) To serve a an extra heat exchanger making use of nitrogen as coolant.
c) to serve as a power source in order to pre-pressurize the hydraulic reservoirs.
d) to allow continuous operation of the hydraulic consumers after a hydraulic pump failure.
237. Systems 1 and 2 are serviced by ground service panels located in the LH fuselage. True or False?
a) True
b) False
238. Systems 3 is serviced by a ground service panel located in the aft equipment bay. True or False?
a) True
b) False
239. System 3 is powered by ____ AC motor pumps
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
240. Both systems 2 and 3 share a ram air/oil heat exchanger for fluid cooling. True or False?
a) True
b) False
241. ACMP 1b and 2b are powered by their respective generator electrical output, in case of generator failure:
a) the associated hydraulic pump is lost for the remainder of the flight.
b) the control logic allows automatic electrical load shedding of the cross side ACMP.
c) the failed pump hydraulic system tasks are taken over by the cross side hydraulic system.
d) the on-side A hydraulic pumps (1A or 2A) are switched ON automatically
242. All hydraulic systems operate at a nominal pressure of ____ kPa.
a) 20,000
b) 20,685
c) 20,765
d) 20,865
243. HYD 1HI TEMP comes on, on the EICAS primary page, to indicate that corresponding system has a fluid temperature above ____degrees C.
a) 85.2
b) 95.7
c) 97.6
d) 102.5
244. When a pump switch is set to AUTO, the pumps automatically start under which conditions?
a) Flaps are in the 0 degree position
b) Associated IDG is operating
c) Flaps are out of the 0 degree position
d) Both B and C
245. With exception of the engine driven hydraulic pumps, teh major components are located
a) in the hydraulic compartment below the center fuel tank
b) in the aft equipment bay
c) in the avionics bay
d) in the forward equipment bay
246. During pre flight checks the hydraulic reservoirs quantity must be checked to be:
a) below 96%
b) within 45% and 85%
c) at least 45% for reservoirs I and 2 and 85% for reservoir 3
d) more than 45%
SECTION 30
ICE RAIN PROTECTION
247. A cross over duct with a(n) ____ valve provides wing anti-ice to both wings from either engine.
a) Relief
b) Isolation
c) Both A and B
d) none of the above
248. Which systems are provided for airplane ice and rain protection?
a) Hot air anti-icing and electrical anti-icing
b) Ice detection and alerting
c) Windshield rain removal
d) All of the above
249. Probe heat must be selected on for all phases of flight. True or False?
a) True
b) False
250. 14th stage bleed air valve is open when:
a) when selected by the push button on the bleed air control panel.
b) valve is selected by push button and 14th stage bleed air pressure is available.
c) when thrust-reversers are selected.
d) as soon as the engine reaches stabilized RPM after engine start.
251. ICE DET TEST switch light on the ice protection panel has the following functions:
a) "Ice detected" indicator and no anti-ice systems selected.
b) Ice-detector test in progress indication.
c) "Ice detected" indicator and indicates a successful ice-detector test.
d) "Ice detected" indicator and all anti ice-systems selected.
252. Electrical anti-icing is provided for:
a) Pilot's and co-pilot's windshields
b) Alternate static port
c) Left and right angle-of-attack sensors
d) All of the above
253. The Ice light on the anti-ice panel flashes if:
a) Ice is encountered
b) Both anti-ice systems are not selected
c) During tests to indicate system is operational
d) All of the above
254. Independent ice detection probes alert the flight crew when ice formation is greater than ______ inch.
a) .010
b) .015
c) .020
d) .025
255. The left and right static probes, TAT probes and ice detectors use ______ anti-icing.
a) Hot air
b) Electrical
c) Both A and B
d) None of the above
256. Hot air anti-icing is provided by 9th stage engine bleed air. True or False?
a) True
b) False
257. Hot air anti-icing is inhibited during thrust reverser operations. True or False?
a) True
b) False
258. When the LH winshield wiper switch is selected to SLOW while the RH switch is selected to FAST:
a) Both wipers will operate at high speed
b) An EICAS caution message “LH WIPER SLOW” is triggered
c) LH wiper operates at slow speed while RH wiper operastes at high speed
d) Both wipers will operate at slow speed
259. Two independent windshield wipers maintain clear areas on the windshield during ____.
a) Takeoff
b) Approach
c) Landing
d) All of the above
260. Windshield and window heat is controlled by switches located on the ANTI-ICE panel, the LH WSHLD switch:
a) controls LH front windshield and LH window heating.
b) controls the LH windshield only.
c) controls LH front windshield and RH window heating.
d) controls the LH front windshield only.
261. How is aileron and rudder trim accomplished ?
a) Electrically repositioning of control cables through the trim system repositions the control surface
b) Electrically repositioning of trim tabs
c) Hydraulically repositioning of trim tabs
d) Mechanical repositioning of the control surface
262. The probe heat system is checked by pressing the _____ switch on the anti-ice panel.
a) LH probe
b) DET TEST
c) RH probe
d) None of the above
263. During icing conditions, each detector can only detect ice once before the probes have to be manually de-iced by a ground crew. True or False?
a) True
b) False
264. Switching the LH or RH cowl anti ice switch to ON position:
a) activated the automatic temperature control system which opens and closes the valve depending on the measured temperature.
b) removes electrical power from the cowl anti-ice valve allowing it to open.
c) electrically open the cowl anti-ice valve.
d) pneumatically open the cowl anti ice valve provided 14th stage bleed air is available
265. Overheat protection circuits supply power to the affected panel during an overheat condition. True or False?
a) True
b) False
266. Two ice detectors are installed on the _____.
a) Forward fuselage
b) Aft fuselage
c) Both A and B
d) None of the above
267. The Right Cowl Piccolo Tube and Duct indication, on the EICAS anti-ice page, displays amber to indicate an operational condition. True or False?
a) True
b) False
268. Engine bleed air is distributed through piccolo tubes to the inner surface of wing leading edge for wing anti-icing. True or False?
a) True
b) False
269. The probe heaters system consists of electric heating elements within the:
a) Pitot tubes and static ports
b) Angel-of-attack transducer vanes
c) TAT probes and ice detectors
d) All of the above
270. Hot air anti-icing prevents the formation of ice on the ____.
a) Trailing edge
b) Leading edge
c) Engine intake cowls
d) Both B and C
271. When LH 14th stage bleed valve is closed, wing anti-ice on the LH side:
a) is no longer possible.
b) is only possible when the isolation valve is opened.
c) still is operational.
d) is still operational using 10th stage bleed air.
SECTION 31
FLIGHT INSTRUMENTS/RECORDING SYSTEMS
272. Status messages.
a) Indicate that an abnormal condition exists or that a failure has occurred, presented below the advisory message and removable from screen at any time.
b) Indicate that an abnormal condition exists or that a lower priority failure has occurred, presented above the advisory message and removable from screen at any time.
c) Indicate that an abnormal condition exist or that a lower priority failure has occurred, presented below the advisory message and only removable from screen when the problem is solved or related system is switched OFF
d) Indicate that an abnormal condition exists or that a lower priority failure has occurred, presented below the advisory message and removable from screen at any time.
273. The selected decision height readout, on the PFD, is displaced upon descent below _____ feet RA.
a) 1000
b) 1500
c) 2000
d) 2500
274. The following is a list of the available system pages normally presented on the secondary EICAS page.
a) ECS, HYD, ELEC, APU, FUEL, F/CTL, A/ICE, DOORS
b) ECS, HYD, ELEC, ENG, FUEL, F/CTL, A/ICE, DOORS
c) ECS, HYD, ELEC, FUEL, F/CTL, A/ICE, DOORS
d) ECS, HYD, ELEC, BLEED, FUEL, F/CTL, A/ICE, DOORS
275. The following best describes “Advisory messages”:
a) Are presented in white and show that a safe condition exist and cannot be removed from screen unless the applicable system is switched OFF
b) Are presented in green and show that a safe condition exist and can be removed from screen at any time.
c) Are presented in green and show that a safe condition exist and cannot be removed from screen.
d) Are presented in green and show that a safe conditions exist and cannot be removed from screen unless the applicable system is switched OFF
276. When is the Take-off configuration armed?
a) When the aiplane is on the ground and both engines are accelerated towards take-off thrust (N1 70%) and TO CONFIG switch/light on the lower pedestal is selected.
b) When the aiplane is on the ground and both engines are accelerated towards take-off thrust (N1 70%) and aircraft ground speed is above 25 knots.
c) When the aiplane is on the ground and one of both engines is accelerated toward take-off thrust (N1 70%).
d) When the aiplane is on the ground and both engines are accelerated towards take-off thrust (N1 70%)
277. The radio altimeter system provides an accurate measurement of absolute altitude from 0 to ____ feet.
e) 2000
f) 2250
g) 2500
h) 3000
278. What is the main source for the stall protection system?
a) Stall Warning Computer
b) Mach Transducer
c) Air Data Computer
d) None of the above
279. AHRS provides attitude gyro, directional gyro and 3-axis rate/accelerometer data to various airplane systems. True or False?
a) True
b) False
280. Resistance changes from the temperature probe provide____ sensor data.
a) TAT
b) Airspeed
c) Altitude
d) All of the above
281. When the ECP (EICAS control panel) fails,
a) all functions of buttons are lost
b) The system pages, CAS and STEP functions are no longer available.
c) the reversionary control panel can be used to display system pages on the EICAS secondary page.
d) PRI, STAT, CAS, STEP functions are still available while all other functions are lost.
282. By which electrical bus is the CVR powered ?
a) AC ESS BUS
b) DC BUS I
c) DC ESS BUS
d) NONE OF THE ABOVE
283. EFIS/EICAS CRT page priority is:
a) Primary flight display, Status page, Multifunction display page, Engines page, Synoptic page
b) Primary flight display, Engines page, Status page, Synoptic page, Multifunction display page
c) Status page, Multifunction display page, Engines page, Primary flight display, Synoptic page
d) Status page, Primary flight display, Multifunction display page, Synoptic page, Engines page
284. The radio altimeter provides the pilot's and co-pilot's PFD‟s with which readouts?
a) Radio altitude readout
b) Decision height set readouts
c) Decision height alerts and radio altimeter fail flags
d) All of the above
285. Two master caution switch/lights come on flashing when a caution occurs, Pushing either MASTER CAUTION switch/light.
a) will place a caution message on the CAS field, the Master Caution light remains steady illuminated until the problem does not longer exist
b) extinguishes both master caution lights for the duration of that caution and resets the lights for future cautions
c) extinguishes both master caution lights and resets the light for future cautions
d) extinguishes the depressed caution light for the duration of that caution and resets the light for future cautions
286. The take-off configuration warning system checks the following systems.
a) Flaps, spoilers, Hor.stabilizer, parking brake, rudder trim, aileron trim reverse control handles.
b) Autopilot , flaps ground-spoilers, Hor.stabilizer, parking brake, rudder trim, aileron trim.
c) Autopilot, flaps, spoilers, Hor.stabilizer, parking brake, rudder trim, aileron trim.
d) Autopilot, flaps, spoilers, elevator trim, parking brake, rudder trim, aileron trim.
287. Warning of a impending stall is provided to the crew by the following
a) A warbler, glare-shield STALL light comes ON, and vibration of both columns, when the AOA continues to increase a stick pusher is activated
b) A warbler, and vibration of both column, when the AOA continues to increase a stick pusher is activated
c) A warbler, glare-shield STALL light comes ON and vibration of both columns, when the AOA continues to increase an aural STALL message is announced and the pusher is activated
d) a cavalry charge audio signal, glare-shield STALL lights come ON, and a stick shaker and pusher are activated and an aural STALL message is announced.
288. Static and pitot port inputs to each ADC's differential sensor produce the ____ sensor data.
a) TAT
b) Airspeed
c) Altitude
d) All of the above
289. The standby altimeter/indicated airspeed unit uses the ___ source and ___ source.
a) P1, S2
b) P2, S2
c) P3, S3
d) All of the above
290. The air data system interacts/interfaces with which systems?
a) ATC transponder and GPWS
b) Wind-shear detection and recovery guidance system and TCAS
c) A and B
d) None of the above
291. When a reversionary switch is set at either 1 or 2, the display receives information from ____.
a) A single source
b) Its on-side source
c) Both A and B
d) None of the above
292. The roll comparator indication, on the primary flight display, is displayed when a difference of ___ degrees level flight or ___ degrees on approach has been detected.
a) 4, 3
b) 3, 4
c) 5, 6
d) 6, 5
293. When a new caution message is to be presented on the CAS field:
a) It will appear on top of the listed messages on the CAS field.
b) It initially will appear on top of the listed messages and moved to alphabetical order after the message is acknowledged.
c) It will appear on top of the listed caution messages on the CAS field.
d) It will appear on top of the listed caution messages on the CAS field after master caution is reset.
294. The air data reference panels (ARP‟s) enable pilot selection of airspeed reference pointers and barometric correction for altitude. True or False?
a) True
b) False
295. The standby attitude indicator displays airplane pitch and bank angle for at least ____ minutes after power failure.
a) 5
b) 7
c) 9
d) 11
296. Using the reversionary control panel what can the Multi Function Display be used for?
a) Presenting the on-side PFD or EICAS primary and secondary display information
b) Presenting the Off-side PFD or EICAS primary and secondary display information
c) Presenting the on-side PFD or EICAS secondary display information
d) Presenting the On-side PFD or EICAS primary display information
297. When a problem caused a caution message to appear on the CAS field, the message will be removed when:
a) When the problem does no longer exist
b) After pressing the master caution light
c) The corresponding system circuit breaker is pulled
d) The system is reset
298. When will the landing gear horn of the landing configuration warning system sound?
a) Any gear not down and locked and one or both thrust levers selected to idle.
b) Two minutes after ground to air transition, any gear not down and locked and one or both thrust levers selected to idle.
c) Two minutes after ground to air transition, any gear not down and locked and IAS <163 KIAS and one or both thrust levers selected to idle.
d) Two minutes after ground to air transition, any gear not down and locked and both thrust levers selected to idle.
299. Is it possible to mute the landinggear horn of the landing configuration warning system?
a) Yes, at all times by the MUTE knob on either audio control panel.
b) Yes, but only when one thrust lever is at idle
c) No, since this is a warning system the situation can only be corrected by selecting the gear down.
d) Yes, but only when one thrust lever is at idle or by selecting the gear down
300. Each AHRS receives compass compensation values from the ____.
a) On-side flux detector
b) Applicable air data system
c) On-side remote compensator
d) None of the above
301. How is the crew notified of the fact that the aircraft is in a safe take off configuration?
a) When the system does not indicate an unsafe situation by flashing both master warning light the take-off is considered to be safe.
b) T/O CONFIG OK advisory (green)message comes on, and the message is removed upon aircraft rotation.
c) T/O CONFIG OK advisory (green)message comes on, and the message is removed by the CLR button on the ECP (EICAS control panel).
d) T/O CONFIG OK status (white)message comes on, and the message is removed upon aircraft rotation.
302. The flight compartment's clocks are the time base source for the airplane avionics equipment. True or False?
a) True
b) False
303. Each AHRS computer receives magnetic flux sensor input from the _____.
a) On-side flux detector
b) Applicable air data system
c) On-side remote compensator
d) None of the above
304. Static port input to each ADC‟s absolute sensors produces the ____ date.
a) TAT sensor
b) Airspeed sensor
c) Altitude sensor
d) All of the above
305. TAT probe readings are used to obain the ambient-static temperature before take-off. True or False?
a) True
b) False
306. Two pitot-static systems are provides to supply variable pressure inputs to the ADC‟s and the Mach transducers of the stall protection system. True or False?
a) True
b) False
307. In the indicating system, for synoptics, the color "half intensity magenta" is used .
a) when invalid data is received by the indicating system
b) for advisory information only
c) when the displayed information is related to the FIVIS system
d) Both A and C are correct
308. Where is the standby compass located in the flight compartment?
a) Below the overhead panel
b) On the center pedestal
c) On the observer's station
d) On primary flight display
309. In the event of a PFD failure, the PFD format may be displayed on the adjacent MFD by actuation of the ______ switch.
a) MFD format selector
b) Reversionary mode
c) TCAS
d) None of the above
310. Each MRS computer receives true and vertical speed from the _____.
a) On-side flux detector
b) Applicable air data system
c) On-side remote compensator
d) None of the above
311. A dual total air temperature probe is provided to supply temperature input to ADC 1 and 2. True or False?
a) True
b) False
Section 32:
Landing gear and brakes.
312. _____ heat sensitive fusible plugs are installed in each wheel to release excessive air pressure caused by heat build-up in the wheel/tire assembly.
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
313. The nose wheel steering system is a steer-by-wire system. True or False?
a) True
b) False
314. The landing gear system is a retractable tricycle type consisting of ____ main landing gear assemblies and a ____ landing gear assembly.
a) 3, nose
b) 2, nose
c) 3, forward
d) 2, forward
315. The landing gear control lever is equipped with a solenoid lock which prevents up selection of the landing gear control lever with the airplane on the ground. True or False?
a) True
b) False
316. The retraction or extension signal is sent to the ____.
a) EICAS
b) TCAS
c) PSEU
d) GPWS
317. The PSEU monitors the _____.
a) Nose landing gear doors
b) Uplocks and downlocks
c) Position of landing gear
d) All of the above
318. Nose wheel steering is possible to ____ degrees either side of center by the use of the steering tiller.
a) 7
b) 70
c) 9
d) 90
319. The brake wear indicator pins can be checked at any time. True or False?
a) True
b) False
320. The inboard/outboard brake pressure readout, on the EICAS hydraulic page, displays white to indicate brake pressure is ____ than 3200 psi.
a) Less
b) Greater
321. The Brake Temperature Monitoring System monitors the temperature of each brake by the means of a chrome/alumel thermocouple. True or False?
a) True
b) False
322. The brakes of the outboard wheels are powered the ___ hydraulic system.
a) No. I
b) No. 2
c) No. 3
d) None of the above
323. The anti-skid system independently controls the braking of each main wheel by modulating the pressure outputs of the appropriate ____.
a) Dual anti-skid valves
b) Speed transducers
c) Nose landing gear selector valve
d) None of the above
324. The landing gear horn will sound if:
a) Radio altitude is less than or equal to 1000 AGL
b) Landing gear are not locked down
c) Descent rate of greater than or equal to 400 feet per minute
d) All of the above
325. If the correct parameters are met, the PSEU sequentially energizes the appropriate selector values to retract or extend the landing gear using ___ hydraulic pressure.
a) No. 1
b) No. 2
c) No. 3
d) None of the above
326. The PSEU monitors various landing gear proximity sensing inputs and ____ inputs
a) Weight-on-wheels
b) Weight-off-wheels
c) Outboard brakes
d) All of the above
327. Loss of the No. 2 or No. 3 hydraulic system leaves the airplane with ____% symmetric braking capability with ful anti-skid control to the working brakes.
a) 25
b) 50
c) 75
d) None of the above
328. When operating the nose landing gear door on the ground, ensure that the nose wheel and surrounding area are clear of personnel and equipment. True or False?
a) True
b) False
329. You must always ensure that the nose landing gear bay area is clear before selecting the nose door switch to FLT/NORM. True or False?
a) True
b) False
330. _____ brake wear indicator pins on each brake assembly provide a visual indication of brake wear remaining in the disc stack.
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
331. The anti-skid system consists of a dual-channel anti-skid control unit, _____ axle-mounted speed transducers and _____dual anti-skid control valves.
a) 6,4
b) 2,4
c) 4,2
d) 2,6
332. The proximity sensor system consists of the:
a) Proximity sensors and proximity switches
b) Micro switches
c) PSEU
d) All of the above
333. _____ power or ______ power is required to operate the nose landing gear doors on the ground.
a) DC ground, APU AC
b) APU ground, AC
c) DC ground, APU DC
d) AC ground, APU AC
334. Each landing gear assembly is equipped with a nitrogen charged/oil shock strut. True or False?
a) True
b) False
335. In the event of a failure of No. 2 and No. 3 hydraulic systems, accumulators in both hydraulic systems provide reserve pressure for six brake applications with anti-skid off. True or False?
a) True
b) False
336. Should a failure occur in the landing gear control system or in No.3 hydraulic system, landing gear extension is not possible. True or False?
a) True
b) False
337. The brakes of the inboard wheels are powered by the _____ hydraulic system.
a) No. 1
b) No. 2
c) No. 3
d) None of the above
SECTION 33:
LIGHTING
338. Lavatory mirror light brightness is controlled by switches activated by movement of the lavatory door latch. The light is off when the door is open, and on when closed. True or False?
a) True
b) False
339. What color is the STBID NAV light?
a) White
b) Green
c) Red
d) None
340. The emergency lighting system is powered by ___ 28-volt DC rechargeable battery packs.
a) 2
b) 4
c) 6
d) 8
341. When AC power is not available during ground operations (prior to APU startup), the overhead panel lighting system is powered by the BATT BUS. True or False?
a) True
b) False
342. What color is the PORT NAV light?
a) White
b) Green
c) Red
d) None
343. When on battery power only, which lighting will be retained?
a) Flight compartment
b) Integral lighting on the overhead panel
c) Integral INTEG/INST lighting on all instruments
d) All of the above
344. Where are the controls for the flight compartment lights located?
a) Left and right side instrument panel
b) Overhead panel
c) Rear of the center pedestal
d) All of the above
345. The intensity of the indicator lights on the overhead, glareshield, side panels and pedestal panels are controlled by an IND LT‟s intensity selector located on the ____.
a) Overhead panel
b) Left and side instrument panels
c) Center pedestal
d) None
346. What color are the AFT NAV lights?
a) White
b) Green
c) Red
d) None
347. The wing leading edge lights are mounted on the left and right fuselage. True or False?
a) True
b) False
348. Exterior lighting provides ____ for area lighting during taxi and normal servicing.
a) High intensity lights
b) Ground floodlights
349. The battery packs for the emergency lighting system supplies power for approximately ___ minutes when fully charged.
a) 15
b) 20
c) 30
d) 45
350. Flight compartment area lighting is provided by a dome light at the flight compartment door/threshold area. True or False?
a) True
b) False
351. Beacon and airline logo lights are optional. True or False?
a) True
b) False
352. Exterior lighting provides ___ for landing.
a) High intensity lights
b) Ground floodlights
353. The pilot‟s side console is illuminated by what type of lighting?
a) Integral
b) CRT brightness
c) Incandescent
d) Fluorescent flood
354. Service lighting comprises light installed in the aft baggage compartment, the underfloor avionics bay, the nose landing gear wheel well and the aft equipment bay areas that are used to facilitate loading and servicing operations. True or False?
a) True
b) False
SECTION 34:
NAVIGATION
355. ATC 1 and ATC 2 provide centralized control and display of frequencies, channels, codes and modes set on the communications and navigation receivers. True or False?
a) True
b) False
356. The two VHF navigation receivers provide VOR, LOC, GS and MB signals. True or False?
a) True
b) False
357. ____ warnings take priority over all other aural alerts and warnings, except a stall warning.
a) Fire
b) Windshear
c) Gear not down
d) None of the above
358. TCAS monitors a radius of approximately _____ nautical miles about the airplane.
a) 30
b) 40
c) 50
d) 60
359. ____ mode functions as a direction finder indicating bearing to station and outputs an aural tone.
a) ANT
b) TONE
c) ADF
d) None of the above
360. The weather radar system provides the flight crew with a display of x-band radar detectable areas of precipitation along and within ___ degrees on either side of the airplane's flight path.
a) 60
b) 75
c) 90
d) 180
361. Each of the MFDs has the primary function of showing:
a) Current heading
b) Course information
c) Aircraft attitude
d) Both A and B
362. Weather radar returns and system modes are displayed on the flight compartment MFDs. True or False?
a) True
b) False
363. TCAS provides two types of advisories: Traffic advisory and resolution advisory: True or False?
a) True
b) False
364. Resolution advisories occur when the TCAS computer predicts that the intruding airplane is within about ____ seconds for the closest point of approach.
a) 20
b) 25
c) 30
d) 45
365. The backup controller maintains the frequencies set on ____.
a) ADF 1 ADF 2
b) VOR 2
c) VOR 1
d) None of the above
366. VOR frequency range is from 108.10 to 111.95 MHz. True or False?
a) True
b) False
367. The two ADF receivers provide relative bearing between the airplane and a selected ground station for display on the HIS portion of the PFDs and MFDs. True or False?
a) True
b) False
368. The ADF receivers operate in which mode / s?
a) ADF
b) ANT
c) TONE
d) All of the above
369. The FMS contains a data base unit, one CDU and two flight management computers. True or False?
a) True
b) False
370. Traffic advisories indicate the relative positions of intruding airplanes that are about ____ seconds for the closest point of approach.
a) 30
b) 40
c) 45
d) 60
371. Where is the radar control panel mounted?
a) Pilot's side panel
b) Co-pilot's side panel
c) Overhead panel
d) Center pedestal
372. Frequency selection is through radio tuning units. True or False?
a) True
b) False
373. The TCAS system can generate resolution for all intruders. True or False?
a) True
b) False
374. Where is the backup controller located?
a) Overhead panel
b) Center pedestal
c) Pilot’s side panel
d) None of the above
375. ____ mode allows identification of keyed continuous wave signals by using a 1000-Hz aural output circuit.
a) ANT
b) ADF
c) TONE
d) None of the above
376. Each PFD has the primary function of pictorially showing:
a) Flight director commands
b) Aircraft attitude
c) Flight control system annunciations
d) All of the above
377. The GPWS alerts and warns the flight crew when the airplane's flight path and position relative to ___ requires immediate crew attention and action.
a) Other airplanes
b) Terrain
378. _____ mode functions as an aural receiver.
a) ANT
b) ADF
c) TONE
d) None of the above
379. The two distance measuring transceivers provide slant range distance from the airplane to a selected ground station. True or False?
a) True
b) False
380. The FMS can be used for:
a) Secondary radio tuning
b) Flight parameter computations
c) NAV sensor control
d) All of the above
381. The flight management system is an integrated navigation system that provides world wide point-to-point and great circle navigation. True or False?
a) True
b) False
382. The ___ is an airborne system that interrogates ATC transponders in nearby airplanes to identify and display potential and predicted collision threats.
a) TCAN
b) TCAS
c) RTU
d) None of the above
383. Station identifier information is provided for up to ___ DME, TCAN or VORTAC ground stations simultaneously.
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
SECTION 49
APU
384. APU intake door position is indicated on Status page and shows:
a) 0, 28, 42
b) mid, Open
c) Open
d) 28, 42
385. If overspeed or over-temperature occur during flight, the APU should be restarted. True or False?
a) True
b) False
386. The danger area for the APU exhaust is ____feet.
a) 5
b) 10
c) 15
d) 20
387. The APU engine consists of:
a) A power section
b) A gear box
c) Both A and B
d) None of the above
388. The EICAS caution message "APU BLEED ON" indicates the load control valve is open and barometric altitude is greater than ___ feet.
a) 9,000
b) 10,000
c) 13,000
d) 15,000
389. The APU is a gas turbine engine equipped with a gearbox driving an____ cooled 30 kVA ac generator.
a) Air
b) Oil
c) Both A and B
d) None of the above
390. APU LCV switch, on the bleed air panel, connects or disconnects APU supply to:
a) Air-conditioning system
b) Left and right pneumatic systems
c) 10th stage bleed air manifold
d) All of the above
391. There are ____ secondary fuel nozzles in the APU fuel system.
a) 2
b) 3
c) 1
d) 4
392. When the APU start/stop switch on the APU control panel is pressed out.
a) The FCU shut-off valve closes
b) APU shuts down
c) AVAIL light goes out
d) All of the above
393. An „APU FAULT” message on EICAS indicates start time too long. True or False?
a) True
b) False
394. After shut down of the APU a direct APU re-start is only possible when:
a) APU RPM is below 10%
b) When APU indications are removed from status page after initial shut-down.
c) After a cool down period of at least one minute.
d) After resetting the APU shut-off switch on the external control panel
395. The APU is located
a) In the tail section
b) In the forward fuselage behind tho nose wheel well
c) In a fire proof enclosure
d) In the tail section in a fire enclosure
396. The EICAS warning message "APU OVERSPEED" indicates the APU is running greater than ___ % rpm.
a) 95
b) 100
c) 107
d) 124
397. Concerning the APU the following is indicated on the Status page when the APU is in use:
a) RPM, EGT, Door position
b) RPM, ITT, Door position
c) N, EGT, Door position
d) N, ITT, Door position
398. The APU intake door has three positions, Closed, Mid and Open. The positioning of the doors is controlled by the ECU and depending on:
a) Air or ground operation
b) Pressure altitude
c) Aircraft speed
d) Both B and C are correct
399. The APU is controlled by an ECU during start-up operations only. True or False?
a) True
b) False
400. The purpose of the ECU is to:
a) Monitor all sensors and switches
b) Set up the appropriate fuel acceleration and temperature schedules
c) Relays appropriate operating data to the pilots through EICAS
d) All of the above
401. The APU control system ensures that priority is given to electrical loads by increasing bleed air flow when exhaust gas temperature limits are approached. True or False?
a) True
b) False
402. When a APU fire occurs, the extinghuishe system:
a) Is automatically activated
b) Must manually be activated
c) Is automatically activated after APU shut-down by crew
d) On ground automatically, when airborne system must be manually activated
403. APU bleed air is modulated by the ___ valve to maintain turbine temperatures within limits.
a) Load control
b) Check
c) Isolation
d) Starter control
404. There are ____ primary fuel nozzles in the APU fuel system.
a) 2
b) 3
c) 1
d) 4
405. APU LCV interlock is engaged by selecting which of the following?
a) Isolation and RH bleed SOV
b) APU start switch
c) LH bleed SOV switch open
d) Both A and C
406. What happens when the PWR/FUEL button is pressed?
a) APU fuel shut-off valve opens
b) ECU energized
c) APU XFLOW pump comes on
d) All of the above
407. The EICAS warning message "APU OVERTEMP" indicates:
a) EGT is greater than 743'C
b) APU RPM is greater than 87% at all times
c) APU RPM is greater than 974oC at all times
d) All of the above
408. The APU automatically shut down because of the the following events:
a) APU fault, APU overtemperature or overspeed, APU oil temperature or low pressure
b) APU fire and APU fault, APU overtemperature or overspeed, APU oil temperature or low pressure
c) APU overtemperature or overspeed, APU oil temperature or low pressure
d) Fire and APU fault, APU overtemperature or overspeed
409. The capacitive discharge ignition is on at ___ % rpm and off at ___ % rpm.
a) 10,85
b) 12,85
c) 12,94.5
d) 10,94.5
410. The APU compressor is protected against surge by altering the position of the compressor's variable diffusers. True or False?
a) True
b) False
411. The fuel control unit, torque motor and oil pump are located on the right side of the accessory gearbox. True or False?
a) True
b) False
412. The APU SHUT-OFF switch, on the external service panel, is used by maintenance personnel to shut down the APU during ground servicing. True or False?
e) True
a) False
SECTION 58
EMERGENCY EQUIPMENT
413. Where is the emergency megaphone located?
a) Behind the co-pilot’s seat
b) Ceiling panel above co-pilot
c) Overhead bin at row 12
d) Access panel adjacent to overwing exits
414. Protective breathing hoods, used for smoke and fire fighting, are installed in the flight compartment and cabin in a vacuum-sealed bag inside a container mounted in what location?
a) Aft of the pilot's seat on the CB panel wall
b) Forward wardrobe unit
c) Aft attendant's seating area
d) All of the above
415. The flight compartment's oxygen bottle is located in the left hand forward fuselage underfloor area. True or False?
a) True
b) False
416. Normal charge pressure for the flight compartment's oxygen bottle is 127.5 bar at ___ degrees
a) 21
b) 36
c) 19
d) 27
417. The flight compartment oxygen system consists of which of the following?
a) One oxygen bottle, a ground servicing panel and one smoke hood.
b) Three oxygen mask/regulator units and a fuselage-mounted relief valve.
c) Both A and B
d) None of the above
418. The chemical oxygen generator supplies approximately ___ minutes of oxygen to each passenger mask.
a) 12
b) 15
c) 17
d) 20
419. The protective breathing hood nay be used without the oxygen supply. True or False?
a) True
b) False
420. Where is the emergency crash axe located?
a) Behind the co-pilot's seat
b) Ceiling panel above co-pilot
c) overhead bin at row 12
d) Access panel adjacent to overwing exits
421. Emergency oxygen is supplied by ____ independent oxygen systems.
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
422. The potassium superoxide cartridge on the protective breathing equipment has a duration of ____ minutes.
a) 5
b) 10
c) 15
d) 20
423. All oxygen compartment doors will open to present the oxygen kasks automatically if cabin altitude reaches approximately _____ feet.
a) 12,000
b) 14,000
c) 15,000
d) 15,500
424. The blinker on the pilot's/co-pi lot's oxygen mask container shows a ___ cross to indicate when oxygen is flowing or harness is inflated.
a) White
b) Yellow
c) Green
d) Red
425. Odor similar to scorched cloth may be created by activation of the passenger oxygen generator. This poses no oxygen purity or fire hazard. True or False?
a) True
b) False
SECTION 72
ENGINES
426. The DCU‟s record engine operating times and conditions, and all limits. True or False?
a) True
b) False
427. The DCU‟s perform what function?
a) Signal processing
b) Engine signal analog/digital conversion
c) Engine system failure detection
d) All of the above
428. Bypass air passes through the single-stage fan only and is ducted around the engine to produce approximately 80% of the engine thrust. True or False?
a) True
b) False
429. The “L, R FUEL LO TEMP” message, on EICAS, indicates fuel temperature is less than ____ degrees C.
a) 5
b) 7
c) 10
d) 15
430. starter motor cut-out occurs at ____ percent N2 rpm.
a) 30
b) 40
c) 45
d) 55
431. At ___ , the FCU meters fuel to the injectors to control N2 speed.
a) Take off
b) Climb
c) Cruise power settings
d) Low thrust setting
432. Cross bleed air starts require that the operating engine is at 85% N2 or higher. True or False?
a) True
b) False
433. The engine control system consists of a ___ speed governing system.
a) Hydraulic fan
b) Hydromechanical core engine
c) Electrical fan
d) Both B and C
434. The ignition systems/ igniters can only be selected on one at a time. True or False?
a) True
b) False
435. At ____ , the engine is N1 speed controlled.
a) Take-off
b) Climb
c) Cruise power settings
d) All of the above
436. Engine airflow passes through 14-stage fan and is divided into two airflow systems: core air and bypass air. True or False?
a) True
b) False
437. ____ stage compressor section bleed air is used for engine starting, air conditioning and avionics cooling and pressurization.
a) 7th
b) 10th
c) 14th
d) None of the above
438. In the event of an engine failure, the automatic performance reserve system increases thrust on the remaining engine to pounds.
a) 8521
b) 8729
c) 9220
d) 9626
439. The airplane is equipped with two General Electric CIF 34-3A1 high bypass ratio turbofan engines, which have a normal takeoff thrust rating of _____ pounds.
a) 8521
b) 8729
c) 9220
d) 9626
440. A minimum pneumatic supply pressure of ____ psi and ____ volts DC are required for engine starts.
a) 20,44
b) 44,20
c) 24, 40
d) 40, 24
441. The N2 rotor is a ____ stage axial flow compressor connected through a shaft to a ____ stage high pressure turbine.
a) Single, 14
b) Single, 4
c) 14, 2
d) 2, 14
442. The engine is a dual rotor assembly consisting of a fan rotor (N1) and a compressor (N2). True or False?
a) True
b) False
443. Pressing the engine STOP switch/light disengages the air turbine starter. True or False?
a) True
b) False
444. The engine control system operates to prevent compressor stall and surge. True and False?
a) True
b) False
445. The N I rotor consists of a ____ stage fan connected through a shaft to a _____ stage low pressure turbine.
a) Single, 14
b) Single, 4
c) 14,2
d) 2, 14
446. ____ is used to cool engine oil.
a) Engine bleed air
b) Fuel
c) Both A and B
d) None of the above
447. An ___ control system operates to prevent the engine from producing high thrust levels during inadvertent reverser deployment.
a) Thrust lever
b) VIB
c) Automatic throttle retarder
d) None of the above
448. The engine is on hydromechanical N2 control at high power settings. True or False?
a) True
b) False
449. Pressurized air and DC electrical power are required for starter operation. True or False?
a) True
b) False
450. A fan exhaust thrust reverser system is installed to deflect fan discharge air to assist in airplane _____on the ground.
a) Braking
b) Reversing
c) Taxiing
d) Changing direction
451. Ignition system modes are:
a) Normal start
b) Continuos ignition and automatic ignition
c) Both A and B
d) None of the above
Section 85
Warning systems
452. Warning are indicated by ___ messages at the top of the message list on the EICAS display.
a) Green
b) Amber
c) Red
d) White
453. Pushing the MASTER/CAUTION switch will not silence which alerts?
a) GPWS voice alerts
b) TCAS voice alerts
c) Altitude aural alerts
d) All of the above
454. A siren aural warning indicates:
a) Stall
b) Wind shear
c) Gear not down
d) Altitude alert
455. Caution messages cannot be removed from the EICAS display unless the applicable failure has been rectified. True or False?
a) True
b) False
456. All crew alerting system messages are divided into two categories: Warnings and Status. True or False?
a) True
b) False
457. The OVIRD position of the GPWS and FLAP override switch on the center pedestal inhibits ground proximity warnings. True or False?
a) True
b) False
458. At engine start-up, the gear status indicators on the EICAS primary page displays ____ for down/lock.
a) White
b) Green
c) Amber
d) Red
459. On the EICAS primary display, the flap position indicators display _____to indicate a miscompare in flap indications.
a) White
b) Green
c) Amber
d) Red
460. The landing gear horn will sound if the indicated airspeed is at less that or equal to _____ knots.
a) 125
b) 165
c) 170
d) 185
461. Warning messages cannot be removed from the EICAS display unless the applicable failure has been rectified. True or False?
a) True
b) False
462. The GPWS light on the glareshield panel flashes _____ during ground proximity warning system alerts.
a) White
b) Amber
c) Green
d) Red
463. WING A/ICE SNSR is a _____ message.
a) Warning
b) Caution
c) Status
d) Advisory
464. A warbler aural warning indicates:
a) Stall
b) Wind shear
c) Fire warning
d) Autopilot disconnect
465. Status messages appear in ____ after the advisory messages.
a) Green
b) Amber
c) Red
d) White
466. Caution messages can be removed from view by pressing the CAS button. True or False?
a) True
b) False
467. The FDR provides a digital record of airplane flight data for the last 25 hours and operates whenever:
a) The power is on
b) STROBES lights on and/or weight-off -wheels
c) Both A and B
d) None of the above
468. L JETPIPE OVHT is a _____ message.
a) Warning
b) Caution
c) Status
d) Advisory
469. Warnings indicate operational or airplane systems conditions that require ____ corrective action.
a) Time available
b) No
c) Prompt
d) Immediate |
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发表于 2013-10-18 13:20:25
